The Senate Is a Joke

17,501 Views | 205 Replies | Last: 2 yr ago by concordtom
dajo9
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calbear93 said:

dajo9 said:

You seem awfully triggered by the fact you made a casual comment about the 10th amendment and got it wrong.

Here's something else I know that lawyers hate. The 9th Amendment gives whatever rights the Supreme Court says it gives.
Can another lawyer please explain the basis for the supreme court judgement on Voting Rights Act?

Apparently, he does not understand that it was the 10th Amendment and not the 9th Amendment that was the basis for challenge on dual sovereignty. Please can someone else educate this fool?

I will do you a favor since you seem not to understand what the 10th amendment provides and why that is the basis for challenge on dual sovereignty basis for Voter Rights Act cases.

https://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/12pdf/12-96_6k47.pdf

Is there no one else who understands that the case was not around the 9th amendment (which was never referenced) but around the 10th amendment as further illustrated in Gregory vs .Ashcroft?

It's totally understandable why you think it was the 9th amendment and not the 10th amendment that was the basis for the Supreme Court ruling on the Voting Rights Act. Moron.

Held: Section 4 of the Voting Rights Act is unconstitutional; its formula can no longer be used as a basis for subjecting jurisdictions to preclearance. Pp. 925. (a) In Northwest Austin, this Court noted that the Voting Rights Act "imposes current burdens and must be justified by current needs" and concluded that "a departure from the fundamental principle of equal sovereignty requires a showing that a statute's disparate geographic coverage is sufficiently related to the problem that it targets." 557 U. S., at 203. These basic principles guide review of the question presented here. Pp. 917. (1) State legislation may not contravene federal law. States retain broad autonomy, however, in structuring their governments and pursuing legislative objectives. Indeed, the Tenth Amendment reserves to the States all powers not specifically granted to the Federal Government, including "the power to regulate elections." Gregory v. Ashcroft, 501 U. S. 452, 461462. There is also a "fundamental principle of equal sovereignty" among the States, which is highly pertinent in assessing disparate treatment of States. Northwest Austin, supra, at 203. The Voting Rights Act sharply departs from these basic principles. It requires States to beseech the Federal Government for permission to implement laws that they would otherwise have the right to enact and execute on their own. And despite the tradition of equal sovereignty, the Act applies to only nine States (and additional counties). That is why, in 1966, this Court described the Act as "stringent" and "potent," Katzenbach, 383 U. S., at 308, 315, 337. The Court nonetheless upheld the Act, concluding that such an "uncommon exercise of congressional power" could be justified by "exceptional conditions." Id., at 334. Pp. 912.


There you go again. Pretending somebody said something they didn't say so you can argue something nobody is arguing about.

You made a bad statement about the 10th amendment. Just own up to it and stop freaking out.

It doesn't matter that the Supreme Court historically hasn't used the 9th Amendment. They could use it tomorrow and that would be the law of the land. The Supreme Court has way too much power.
calbear93
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SFBear92 said:

Quote:

Do yourself a favor and actually read Shelby vs. Holder instead of spending all your time trying to act like you know anything.
I'm not a lawyer, but I do enjoy reading Supreme Court opinions (that is until I got to Ginsburg's dissent. She needed an editor).

Having read the opinions, what do you think is the likely future of litigation against some of the laws that are being passed or proposed by Republican legislatures and how do you expect the Court to come down against them if and when they consider those questions? The issue with the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was rather specific with section 4(b), not with the Act itself, and they held that Congress retained great powers to protect voting access.

Also, what are your feelings about HR1?
I honestly don't know much about HR1.

However, there clearly is a fight brewing on state right versus fed rights and the scope of the Section 2 of the 15th Amendment. The courts have demanded high standard (e.g., exceptional conditions) to justify exercise of the authority granted in the 15th amendment to make laws to enforce Section 1 of the 15th amendment.

Unfortunately, politics and the justices view on where we are as a country will dictate whether exceptional conditions exist for congress to exercise what otherwise have been state right to determine the method of elections.

Knowing where Roberts and Thomas as well as the other conservative justices stand on their view of this standard (they believe exceptional conditions do not exist anymore - I disagree with them, but it's subjective), I think the red states are viewing this as an opportunity to exercise more state control over the election and push back on any argument that further regulation is required at the federal level to avoid abridging voting rights based on color or race (whether direct or indirect).
calbear93
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dajo9 said:

calbear93 said:

dajo9 said:

You seem awfully triggered by the fact you made a casual comment about the 10th amendment and got it wrong.

Here's something else I know that lawyers hate. The 9th Amendment gives whatever rights the Supreme Court says it gives.
Can another lawyer please explain the basis for the supreme court judgement on Voting Rights Act?

Apparently, he does not understand that it was the 10th Amendment and not the 9th Amendment that was the basis for challenge on dual sovereignty. Please can someone else educate this fool?

I will do you a favor since you seem not to understand what the 10th amendment provides and why that is the basis for challenge on dual sovereignty basis for Voter Rights Act cases.

https://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/12pdf/12-96_6k47.pdf

Is there no one else who understands that the case was not around the 9th amendment (which was never referenced) but around the 10th amendment as further illustrated in Gregory vs .Ashcroft?

It's totally understandable why you think it was the 9th amendment and not the 10th amendment that was the basis for the Supreme Court ruling on the Voting Rights Act. Moron.

Held: Section 4 of the Voting Rights Act is unconstitutional; its formula can no longer be used as a basis for subjecting jurisdictions to preclearance. Pp. 925. (a) In Northwest Austin, this Court noted that the Voting Rights Act "imposes current burdens and must be justified by current needs" and concluded that "a departure from the fundamental principle of equal sovereignty requires a showing that a statute's disparate geographic coverage is sufficiently related to the problem that it targets." 557 U. S., at 203. These basic principles guide review of the question presented here. Pp. 917. (1) State legislation may not contravene federal law. States retain broad autonomy, however, in structuring their governments and pursuing legislative objectives. Indeed, the Tenth Amendment reserves to the States all powers not specifically granted to the Federal Government, including "the power to regulate elections." Gregory v. Ashcroft, 501 U. S. 452, 461462. There is also a "fundamental principle of equal sovereignty" among the States, which is highly pertinent in assessing disparate treatment of States. Northwest Austin, supra, at 203. The Voting Rights Act sharply departs from these basic principles. It requires States to beseech the Federal Government for permission to implement laws that they would otherwise have the right to enact and execute on their own. And despite the tradition of equal sovereignty, the Act applies to only nine States (and additional counties). That is why, in 1966, this Court described the Act as "stringent" and "potent," Katzenbach, 383 U. S., at 308, 315, 337. The Court nonetheless upheld the Act, concluding that such an "uncommon exercise of congressional power" could be justified by "exceptional conditions." Id., at 334. Pp. 912.


There you go again. Pretending somebody said something they didn't say so you can argue something nobody is arguing about.

You made a bad statement about the 10th amendment. Just own up to it and stop freaking out.

It doesn't matter that the Supreme Court historically hasn't used the 9th Amendment. They could use it tomorrow and that would be the law of the land. The Supreme Court has way too much power.
You are a ****ing idiot. You can come in all stupid saying water is dry, be corrected, and pretend you didn't and never admit that you were wrong. Seriously, who here has any respect for your expertise? Who? Do you not understand that we see you for who you are?
dajo9
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JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?
To your first point, I don't view it as Biden supporters (presumably you mean everyone who voted for him this past November) abandoning him so much as them dropping in enthusiasm and thus less inclined to show up to vote. Semantic I suppose, but I don't consider not showing up to vote as withdrawing support per se but still just as bad in terms of electoral effectiveness. As far as someone like Maggie Hassan goes, I still say there is over a year to go to raise the minimum wage. To me, there were two ways to do so: the facially "incorrect" way (reconciliation) and the "power move" way (filibuster). It's my argument that between these two, the latter is the preferable, more defensible way of doing so. Given that the opportunity for the former has now come and gone, the Democrats are now virtually obligated to do so using the latter, and if they do ultimately do so by the 2022 elections, I don't see any reason for complaint against the 8 in the Democratic caucus who voted against just now. In other words, I think it's too early for launching broadsides the likes of which many of those senators have already been seeing.

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
I see three items here. Biden support, the minimum wage path now, and the state of the Constitution.

As for Biden support, I'm not sure what you are measuring. Midterm voters always decrease, so you will always be able to claim there was a drop in support. Also, historically, the President's party has almost always been defeated in the midterms. So the Democrats have a lot going against them in 2022. On the other hand, Democrats have three things working for them. (1) Demographic changes that strengthen their hand with every passing day, (2) Trump waging war on the Republican Party, and (3) the opportunity to do something to do generate enthusiasm. It is on the elected Democrats to generate results that turns into enthusiasm. The norm would be disaster for Democrats in 2022.

As for the minimum wage, the next step is a much smaller minimum wage increase tied to something like the defense appropriations bill, which is something many Senators will feel compelled to vote for. That is how the last minimum wage hike was passed. Is tieing a minimum wage to a defense appropriations bill so much better than tieing it to a budget reconciliation. Legislation is sausage making. I'm indifferent to how the job gets done. Personally, I think the minimum wage should be tied to the defense appropriations bill every year and the minimum wage should go up in the same % amount as defense spending.

As for the state of the Constitution and the greater problems coming our way if we don't strengthen our democracy - I agree with you.
Re Biden support: Someone much more knowledgeable in electoral trends and statistics than me (perhaps you) might ultimately correct or convince me otherwise. My supposition is that while midterm turnout is invariably lower than that in election years, reduced enthusiasm amongst the Democratic base can only further exacerbate decreased voter turnout to the party's detriment. Assuming that is the case, then I still believe it is way premature to categorically denounce Democratic officials as being unwilling to raise the minimum wage, especially if the presumably unintended effect is to make it more difficult for Democrats to continue building their representative force within the government to incrementally make such legislation easier to pass in the near future. Now, if by this time next year, the Democrats haven't made substantive progress toward raising the minimum wage, then they will be liable for squandering their goodwill (again).

I wouldn't mind tying the minimum wage to something like the defense appropriations bill. Far as I can tell, seemingly unrelated measures get passed together on a regular basis, and defense spending shouldn't be particularly exempt from that relative to other spending like infrastructure, education, etc. I would just again distinguish this from the budget reconciliation process in the sense that the latter has explicit parameters for what can be included whereas a regular spending bill does not.

All things said, I think we overlap in principle on what we would like to see done in the bigger picture, just perhaps differ on select steps on how to get there.


I like this last paragraph most. Election season is time to unify. Legislation season is time to apply pressure. In my opinion.
calbear93
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JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it.

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal.

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment.
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout.

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. Why? Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
Econ For Dummies
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calbear93 said:

SFBear92 said:

Quote:

Do yourself a favor and actually read Shelby vs. Holder instead of spending all your time trying to act like you know anything.
I'm not a lawyer, but I do enjoy reading Supreme Court opinions (that is until I got to Ginsburg's dissent. She needed an editor).

Having read the opinions, what do you think is the likely future of litigation against some of the laws that are being passed or proposed by Republican legislatures and how do you expect the Court to come down against them if and when they consider those questions? The issue with the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was rather specific with section 4(b), not with the Act itself, and they held that Congress retained great powers to protect voting access.

Also, what are your feelings about HR1?
I honestly don't know much about HR1.

However, there clearly is a fight brewing on state right versus fed rights and the scope of the Section 2 of the 15th Amendment. The courts have demanded high standard (e.g., exceptional conditions) to justify exercise of the authority granted in the 15th amendment to make laws to enforce Section 1 of the 15th amendment.

Unfortunately, politics and the justices view on where we are as a country will dictate whether exceptional conditions exist for congress to exercise what otherwise have been state right to determine the method of elections.

Knowing where Roberts and Thomas as well as the other conservative justices stand on their view of this standard (they believe exceptional conditions do not exist anymore - I disagree with them, but it's subjective), I think the red states are viewing this as an opportunity to exercise more state control over the election and push back on any argument that further regulation is required at the federal level to avoid abridging voting rights based on color or race (whether direct or indirect).
Thanks for your thoughts. Finally, some common sense and an informed opinion from a lawyer.
JeffBear07
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calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it.

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal.

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment.
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout.

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. Why? Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it.

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless.

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.
calpoly
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calbear93 said:

dajo9 said:

calbear93 said:

dajo9 said:

You seem awfully triggered by the fact you made a casual comment about the 10th amendment and got it wrong.

Here's something else I know that lawyers hate. The 9th Amendment gives whatever rights the Supreme Court says it gives.
Can another lawyer please explain the basis for the supreme court judgement on Voting Rights Act?

Apparently, he does not understand that it was the 10th Amendment and not the 9th Amendment that was the basis for challenge on dual sovereignty. Please can someone else educate this fool?

I will do you a favor since you seem not to understand what the 10th amendment provides and why that is the basis for challenge on dual sovereignty basis for Voter Rights Act cases.

https://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/12pdf/12-96_6k47.pdf

Is there no one else who understands that the case was not around the 9th amendment (which was never referenced) but around the 10th amendment as further illustrated in Gregory vs .Ashcroft?

It's totally understandable why you think it was the 9th amendment and not the 10th amendment that was the basis for the Supreme Court ruling on the Voting Rights Act. Moron.

Held: Section 4 of the Voting Rights Act is unconstitutional; its formula can no longer be used as a basis for subjecting jurisdictions to preclearance. Pp. 925. (a) In Northwest Austin, this Court noted that the Voting Rights Act "imposes current burdens and must be justified by current needs" and concluded that "a departure from the fundamental principle of equal sovereignty requires a showing that a statute's disparate geographic coverage is sufficiently related to the problem that it targets." 557 U. S., at 203. These basic principles guide review of the question presented here. Pp. 917. (1) State legislation may not contravene federal law. States retain broad autonomy, however, in structuring their governments and pursuing legislative objectives. Indeed, the Tenth Amendment reserves to the States all powers not specifically granted to the Federal Government, including "the power to regulate elections." Gregory v. Ashcroft, 501 U. S. 452, 461462. There is also a "fundamental principle of equal sovereignty" among the States, which is highly pertinent in assessing disparate treatment of States. Northwest Austin, supra, at 203. The Voting Rights Act sharply departs from these basic principles. It requires States to beseech the Federal Government for permission to implement laws that they would otherwise have the right to enact and execute on their own. And despite the tradition of equal sovereignty, the Act applies to only nine States (and additional counties). That is why, in 1966, this Court described the Act as "stringent" and "potent," Katzenbach, 383 U. S., at 308, 315, 337. The Court nonetheless upheld the Act, concluding that such an "uncommon exercise of congressional power" could be justified by "exceptional conditions." Id., at 334. Pp. 912.


There you go again. Pretending somebody said something they didn't say so you can argue something nobody is arguing about.

You made a bad statement about the 10th amendment. Just own up to it and stop freaking out.

It doesn't matter that the Supreme Court historically hasn't used the 9th Amendment. They could use it tomorrow and that would be the law of the land. The Supreme Court has way too much power.
You are a ****ing idiot. You can come in all stupid saying water is dry, be corrected, and pretend you didn't and never admit that you were wrong. Seriously, who here has any respect for your expertise? Who? Do you not understand that we see you for who you are?
Get back on your meds snowflake.
calbear93
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JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it.

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal.

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment.
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout.

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. Why? Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it.

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless.

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.


By the way, I love this discussion and your detailed and learned presentation of your argument. I type my post on my phone while generally doing something else (currently on Peloton) so forgive my lack of eloquence.

Two things I want to address. 14th amendment and judicial review.

It looks like you are focused on Section 1 of the 14th amendment and not Section 2 as I assumed.

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The first part was to guarantee that former slaves could not be denied citizenship. However, citizenship was a requirement to voting but not a guarantee of voting rights. Citizens were denied voting rights all the time whether based on age, conviction or gender even after the passage of the 14th amendment. The equal protection clause of the last clause of Section 1, which applies to both citizens and non citizens, extends the bill of rights protection not only from federal laws but also state laws. The bill of rights does not extend to voting rights since voting rights obviously are denied to non-citizens all the time while equal protection and bill of rights apply to non-citizens. Also, if Section 1 of the 14th amendment meant to cover voting rights, Section 2 would be unnecessary since denial of voting rights would be illegal and the 15th amendment would be superfluous.

As far as judicial review, outside of bill of rights, it is not always clear what standard applies. But in any case, there must be government's interest and the sufficient narrowness of the law's design. In the majority opinion in Shelby, the court never really got to the narrowness of the law's design since it didn't find a sufficient government's interest, referencing lack of "exceptional circumstances" that would justify government's interest since the court believed outdated data was being used as basis for the coverage formula. Whether they were viewing it from the lens of legitimate interest (rational basis test) or compelling interest (strict scrutiny test) is not clear. What is clear is that the dissent believes a rational basis review is justified and believed there was legitimate interest. So, while I am not familiar with HR1 and what it provides (will review when it becomes law since constitutionality review by the courts is not ripe until it becomes law), I believe the VRA should be updated with congressional record showing updated data was used as justification for the coverage formula so that voting laws in covered states or district must be precleared by the federal government before going into effect.
calbear93
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SFBear92 said:

Quote:

Do yourself a favor and actually read Shelby vs. Holder instead of spending all your time trying to act like you know anything.
I'm not a lawyer, but I do enjoy reading Supreme Court opinions (that is until I got to Ginsburg's dissent. She needed an editor).

Having read the opinions, what do you think is the likely future of litigation against some of the laws that are being passed or proposed by Republican legislatures and how do you expect the Court to come down against them if and when they consider those questions? The issue with the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was rather specific with section 4(b), not with the Act itself, and they held that Congress retained great powers to protect voting access.

Also, what are your feelings about HR1?


Read a brief summary of HR1 so my initial thinking is mostly flawed and incomplete.

I will tell you what I think from a personal standpoint and where I think it will land.

Personally, I like a lot of what I read this morning. Making it as easy as possible to vote is great and cleaning campaign finance, ethics and gerrymandering would be nice.

I question whether it will stand up to a review by this current court, considering where they stand on federalism. Other than the right of congress to address election process for the senate and house elections, not sure under what basis you could argue authority by congress to address other election process without showing racial or gender impact. I also think a valid challenge on freedom of speech can and will be made not only on campaign finance reforms but also automatic voter registration (voting is not a requirement and people may elect not to register as a way of objecting to certain injustice like kneeling). Finally, since political (as opposed to racial) gerrymandering has been cleared by the courts as permissible, not sure under what basis congress has the right to regulate redistricting but I am sure someone has thought this through. The best way to understand would be to read the actual bill which, frankly, I am too lazy/busy to do right now.
Econ For Dummies
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BlueAnon said:

sycasey said:

BlueAnon said:

Quote:

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress.
You fool.

That's not Republican messaging. That's progressive messaging.

#BlueAnon



Apparently libertarians now speak for "progressives."







sycasey
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SFBear92 said:

BlueAnon said:

sycasey said:

BlueAnon said:

Quote:

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress.
You fool.

That's not Republican messaging. That's progressive messaging.

#BlueAnon



Apparently libertarians now speak for "progressives."







JeffBear07
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calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it.

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal.

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment.
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout.

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. Why? Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it.

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless.

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.


By the way, I love this discussion and your detailed and learned presentation of your argument. I type my post on my phone while generally doing something else (currently on Peloton) so forgive my lack of eloquence.

Two things I want to address. 14th amendment and judicial review.

It looks like you are focused on Section 1 of the 14th amendment and not Section 2 as I assumed.

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The first part was to guarantee that former slaves could not be denied citizenship. However, citizenship was a requirement to voting but not a guarantee of voting rights. Citizens were denied voting rights all the time whether based on age, conviction or gender even after the passage of the 14th amendment. The equal protection clause of the last clause of Section 1, which applies to both citizens and non citizens, extends the bill of rights protection not only from federal laws but also state laws. The bill of rights does not extend to voting rights since voting rights obviously are denied to non-citizens all the time while equal protection and bill of rights apply to non-citizens. Also, if Section 1 of the 14th amendment meant to cover voting rights, Section 2 would be unnecessary since denial of voting rights would be illegal and the 15th amendment would be superfluous.

As far as judicial review, outside of bill of rights, it is not always clear what standard applies. But in any case, there must be government's interest and the sufficient narrowness of the law's design. In the majority opinion in Shelby, the court never really got to the narrowness of the law's design since it didn't find a sufficient government's interest, referencing lack of "exceptional circumstances" that would justify government's interest since the court believed outdated data was being used as basis for the coverage formula. Whether they were viewing it from the lens of legitimate interest (rational basis test) or compelling interest (strict scrutiny test) is not clear. What is clear is that the dissent believes a rational basis review is justified and believed there was legitimate interest. So, while I am not familiar with HR1 and what it provides (will review when it becomes law since constitutionality review by the courts is not ripe until it becomes law), I believe the VRA should be updated with congressional record showing updated data was used as justification for the coverage formula so that voting laws in covered states or district must be precleared by the federal government before going into effect.
That's far more eloquence than I would even try over the phone.

Yeah I've been referring to the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment, which certainly has decades of jurisprudence, some of it conflicting and seemingly nothing ever dispositive. To me though, voting rights are so foundational to this country and its governmental operation that they should be given the utmost protection akin to a protected class. Thus, any laws that would abridge the ability of any substantial portion of citizens to vote should be analyzed under the strict scrutiny / compelling interest standard. Namely, the burden of proof as to why any law restricting voting ability is needed and appropriately narrowly tailored should lie with the government; there shouldn't be any initial burden on the presumptive plaintiffs to prove that they are being inconvenienced. Let's take another of the proposed voter suppression laws in Georgia, which would make it illegal to pass out food and water to people standing in line to vote. I'm not sure that should even pass a rational basis test, not to mention that that is just salt in the wound when current Georgia state restrictions already force many people (in heavily African-American communities, big surprise) to wait hours in line through no fault or desire of their own. But again, who knows when or even if this current Supreme Court will drop its facade of non-partisanship on this specific issue of voting rights.

I see you making a bit of what sounds like an originalist argument as to whether Section 1 of the 14th was meant to cover voting rights, since the 15th Amendment would then seem superfluous. Matter of philosophy, I don't subscribe at all to originalist approaches to interpreting the Constitution and its amendments but we can set that aside for now. I would just say that there are at least two other amendments that under your argument would also seem superfluous: the 19th Amendment granting women the right to vote and the 24th Amendment prohibition against a poll tax (full disclosure, I had to look up which number this was). I have no doubt that at the time the 14th Amendment was passed, there was hardly any thought given as to whether women should be allowed to vote. But if the spirit of the 14th Amendment - presumably that all people should be equally protected under federal and state laws - is to be abided, then I think it's very difficult to argue that women should not already be inherently covered by the 14th, despite the presence of the 19th. Likewise, you would think that same spirit applies to economically disadvantaged people, despite the presence of the 24th. So I would personally dispute that the 14th Amendment does not have power in a constitutional argument over voting rights.

Also, just one note of interest from your subsequent post, you mention that the Supreme Court has cleared political gerrymandering as permissible. This is a bit semantic, but I believe technically, the Supreme Court simply said that it is not an issue for the courts to take up, presumably punting that issue to be legislated against. Setting aside the seemingly obvious fact that much political gerrymandering is really racial gerrymandering without being explicit, I find this to be one more example of how the current Supreme Court has been completely disingenuous on any issue relating to voting rights. And to link that back to the Court's Shelby argument that the data was outdated, even if it had chosen to adjudicate gerrymandering on a substantive level, I don't have any faith that this current Court would intelligently look at the data anyway. So just an overall s***show at the moment.
calbear93
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JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it.

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal.

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment.
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout.

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. Why? Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it.

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless.

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.


By the way, I love this discussion and your detailed and learned presentation of your argument. I type my post on my phone while generally doing something else (currently on Peloton) so forgive my lack of eloquence.

Two things I want to address. 14th amendment and judicial review.

It looks like you are focused on Section 1 of the 14th amendment and not Section 2 as I assumed.

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The first part was to guarantee that former slaves could not be denied citizenship. However, citizenship was a requirement to voting but not a guarantee of voting rights. Citizens were denied voting rights all the time whether based on age, conviction or gender even after the passage of the 14th amendment. The equal protection clause of the last clause of Section 1, which applies to both citizens and non citizens, extends the bill of rights protection not only from federal laws but also state laws. The bill of rights does not extend to voting rights since voting rights obviously are denied to non-citizens all the time while equal protection and bill of rights apply to non-citizens. Also, if Section 1 of the 14th amendment meant to cover voting rights, Section 2 would be unnecessary since denial of voting rights would be illegal and the 15th amendment would be superfluous.

As far as judicial review, outside of bill of rights, it is not always clear what standard applies. But in any case, there must be government's interest and the sufficient narrowness of the law's design. In the majority opinion in Shelby, the court never really got to the narrowness of the law's design since it didn't find a sufficient government's interest, referencing lack of "exceptional circumstances" that would justify government's interest since the court believed outdated data was being used as basis for the coverage formula. Whether they were viewing it from the lens of legitimate interest (rational basis test) or compelling interest (strict scrutiny test) is not clear. What is clear is that the dissent believes a rational basis review is justified and believed there was legitimate interest. So, while I am not familiar with HR1 and what it provides (will review when it becomes law since constitutionality review by the courts is not ripe until it becomes law), I believe the VRA should be updated with congressional record showing updated data was used as justification for the coverage formula so that voting laws in covered states or district must be precleared by the federal government before going into effect.
That's far more eloquence than I would even try over the phone.

Yeah I've been referring to the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment, which certainly has decades of jurisprudence, some of it conflicting and seemingly nothing ever dispositive. To me though, voting rights are so foundational to this country and its governmental operation that they should be given the utmost protection akin to a protected class. Thus, any laws that would abridge the ability of any substantial portion of citizens to vote should be analyzed under the strict scrutiny / compelling interest standard. Namely, the burden of proof as to why any law restricting voting ability is needed and appropriately narrowly tailored should lie with the government; there shouldn't be any initial burden on the presumptive plaintiffs to prove that they are being inconvenienced. Let's take another of the proposed voter suppression laws in Georgia, which would make it illegal to pass out food and water to people standing in line to vote. I'm not sure that should even pass a rational basis test, not to mention that that is just salt in the wound when current Georgia state restrictions already force many people (in heavily African-American communities, big surprise) to wait hours in line through no fault or desire of their own. But again, who knows when or even if this current Supreme Court will drop its facade of non-partisanship on this specific issue of voting rights.

I see you making a bit of what sounds like an originalist argument as to whether Section 1 of the 14th was meant to cover voting rights, since the 15th Amendment would then seem superfluous. Matter of philosophy, I don't subscribe at all to originalist approaches to interpreting the Constitution and its amendments but we can set that aside for now. I would just say that there are at least two other amendments that under your argument would also seem superfluous: the 19th Amendment granting women the right to vote and the 24th Amendment prohibition against a poll tax (full disclosure, I had to look up which number this was). I have no doubt that at the time the 14th Amendment was passed, there was hardly any thought given as to whether women should be allowed to vote. But if the spirit of the 14th Amendment - presumably that all people should be equally protected under federal and state laws - is to be abided, then I think it's very difficult to argue that women should not already be inherently covered by the 14th, despite the presence of the 19th. Likewise, you would think that same spirit applies to economically disadvantaged people, despite the presence of the 24th. So I would personally dispute that the 14th Amendment does not have power in a constitutional argument over voting rights.

Also, just one note of interest from your subsequent post, you mention that the Supreme Court has cleared political gerrymandering as permissible. This is a bit semantic, but I believe technically, the Supreme Court simply said that it is not an issue for the courts to take up, presumably punting that issue to be legislated against. Setting aside the seemingly obvious fact that much political gerrymandering is really racial gerrymandering without being explicit, I find this to be one more example of how the current Supreme Court has been completely disingenuous on any issue relating to voting rights. And to link that back to the Court's Shelby argument that the data was outdated, even if it had chosen to adjudicate gerrymandering on a substantive level, I don't have any faith that this current Court would intelligently look at the data anyway. So just an overall s***show at the moment.
On the argument you are making based on the 14th amendment, wouldn't it better made under Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act? I am not an expert here but I thought Congress clarified that, unlike Section 1 of the 15th Amendment, no intent was required to be proven but only the disparate impact to allege violation of Section 2 of the VRA. Since Section 2 has already passed the judicial review by the SC, why not use that as the basis?

But here is my take on all this. Section 5 of the VRA was the most impactful provision since it stops the dilution of voting rights before it begins. Lawsuits take a long time, and it may impact the next election before it is fully adjudicated. Why not update the VRA, revive Section 4 based on updated data?


On your assumption that I am making an originalist argument, I don't think that is right. When the women allies worked on the 14th amendment, and they saw the final voting rights portion (Section 2 and not Section 1), they expressed their public dismay that they were left behind. Why? Section 1, if it were intended to cover voting rights, would have covered women too. And it would have covered felons and minors. However, the reason they felt left behind was that Section 2 of the 14th Amendment only addressed men. So, clearly, it was understood that Section 1 does not cover voting rights. Otherwise, looking at Section 1, women's suffrage group would have been overjoyed. In fact, few years after the passing of the 14th amendment and the realization that voting rights was also an important aspect needed to integrate the former slaves, they passed the 15th amendment. If Section 1 of 14th amendment was intended to cover voting rights, there was no need to adopt the 15th amendment but instead just enforce the 14th amendment. Same with the 19th amendment. It would not have been necessary if it was understood that the 14th amendment covered voting rights since Section 1 of the 14th amendment does not discriminate based on color or gender. It is not an originalist argument. It is based on case law history that did not find voting laws unconstitutional for violating Section 1 of the 14th amendment. Maybe you can cite a case law where you think, beyond the plain reading, precedent establishes equal protection clause of the 14th amendment extending to voting rights.

On political gerrymandering, I am not sure what you mean here. We agree that the court held that political gerrymandering is a political issue not subject to review by the judiciary branch. How is a political issue resolved by the only body discharged with resolving (legislative) anything but permissible? Whatever is left solely to one body of the government is legal once resolved by the only authority with the delegation. So, what would be the justification by Congress to takeover portions of redistricting otherwise left to the states? Not sure we are saying anything different, but maybe I am missing a nuance there. It is kind of like impeachment. The courts held that is a political matter that is resolved by the political body delegated and not subject to judicial review. So, the recent impeachment was permissible because the only body authorized (House) impeached the former president. End of story.

I agree that it was a bit weak of the SC to hold that Section 4 of the VRA was unconstitutional. Just like you, I don't know if I follow their reasoning that, since only the outdated data was used, there was no demonstration of a state interest necessary to justify federal reach into what has historically been a state matter. I think the fact that there was so much progress shows that it is effective and that it works, and it is exactly within the authority granted to Congress under Section 2 of the 15th amendment. Hated the Shelby ruling but also shows what we can expect from this court on federalism and voting rights.
JeffBear07
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About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it.

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal.

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment.
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout.

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. Why? Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it.

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless.

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.


By the way, I love this discussion and your detailed and learned presentation of your argument. I type my post on my phone while generally doing something else (currently on Peloton) so forgive my lack of eloquence.

Two things I want to address. 14th amendment and judicial review.

It looks like you are focused on Section 1 of the 14th amendment and not Section 2 as I assumed.

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The first part was to guarantee that former slaves could not be denied citizenship. However, citizenship was a requirement to voting but not a guarantee of voting rights. Citizens were denied voting rights all the time whether based on age, conviction or gender even after the passage of the 14th amendment. The equal protection clause of the last clause of Section 1, which applies to both citizens and non citizens, extends the bill of rights protection not only from federal laws but also state laws. The bill of rights does not extend to voting rights since voting rights obviously are denied to non-citizens all the time while equal protection and bill of rights apply to non-citizens. Also, if Section 1 of the 14th amendment meant to cover voting rights, Section 2 would be unnecessary since denial of voting rights would be illegal and the 15th amendment would be superfluous.

As far as judicial review, outside of bill of rights, it is not always clear what standard applies. But in any case, there must be government's interest and the sufficient narrowness of the law's design. In the majority opinion in Shelby, the court never really got to the narrowness of the law's design since it didn't find a sufficient government's interest, referencing lack of "exceptional circumstances" that would justify government's interest since the court believed outdated data was being used as basis for the coverage formula. Whether they were viewing it from the lens of legitimate interest (rational basis test) or compelling interest (strict scrutiny test) is not clear. What is clear is that the dissent believes a rational basis review is justified and believed there was legitimate interest. So, while I am not familiar with HR1 and what it provides (will review when it becomes law since constitutionality review by the courts is not ripe until it becomes law), I believe the VRA should be updated with congressional record showing updated data was used as justification for the coverage formula so that voting laws in covered states or district must be precleared by the federal government before going into effect.
That's far more eloquence than I would even try over the phone.

Yeah I've been referring to the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment, which certainly has decades of jurisprudence, some of it conflicting and seemingly nothing ever dispositive. To me though, voting rights are so foundational to this country and its governmental operation that they should be given the utmost protection akin to a protected class. Thus, any laws that would abridge the ability of any substantial portion of citizens to vote should be analyzed under the strict scrutiny / compelling interest standard. Namely, the burden of proof as to why any law restricting voting ability is needed and appropriately narrowly tailored should lie with the government; there shouldn't be any initial burden on the presumptive plaintiffs to prove that they are being inconvenienced. Let's take another of the proposed voter suppression laws in Georgia, which would make it illegal to pass out food and water to people standing in line to vote. I'm not sure that should even pass a rational basis test, not to mention that that is just salt in the wound when current Georgia state restrictions already force many people (in heavily African-American communities, big surprise) to wait hours in line through no fault or desire of their own. But again, who knows when or even if this current Supreme Court will drop its facade of non-partisanship on this specific issue of voting rights.

I see you making a bit of what sounds like an originalist argument as to whether Section 1 of the 14th was meant to cover voting rights, since the 15th Amendment would then seem superfluous. Matter of philosophy, I don't subscribe at all to originalist approaches to interpreting the Constitution and its amendments but we can set that aside for now. I would just say that there are at least two other amendments that under your argument would also seem superfluous: the 19th Amendment granting women the right to vote and the 24th Amendment prohibition against a poll tax (full disclosure, I had to look up which number this was). I have no doubt that at the time the 14th Amendment was passed, there was hardly any thought given as to whether women should be allowed to vote. But if the spirit of the 14th Amendment - presumably that all people should be equally protected under federal and state laws - is to be abided, then I think it's very difficult to argue that women should not already be inherently covered by the 14th, despite the presence of the 19th. Likewise, you would think that same spirit applies to economically disadvantaged people, despite the presence of the 24th. So I would personally dispute that the 14th Amendment does not have power in a constitutional argument over voting rights.

Also, just one note of interest from your subsequent post, you mention that the Supreme Court has cleared political gerrymandering as permissible. This is a bit semantic, but I believe technically, the Supreme Court simply said that it is not an issue for the courts to take up, presumably punting that issue to be legislated against. Setting aside the seemingly obvious fact that much political gerrymandering is really racial gerrymandering without being explicit, I find this to be one more example of how the current Supreme Court has been completely disingenuous on any issue relating to voting rights. And to link that back to the Court's Shelby argument that the data was outdated, even if it had chosen to adjudicate gerrymandering on a substantive level, I don't have any faith that this current Court would intelligently look at the data anyway. So just an overall s***show at the moment.
On the argument you are making based on the 14th amendment, wouldn't it better made under Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act? I am not an expert here but I thought Congress clarified that, unlike Section 1 of the 15th Amendment, no intent was required to be proven but only the disparate impact to allege violation of Section 2 of the VRA. Since Section 2 has already passed the judicial review by the SC, why not use that as the basis?

But here is my take on all this. Section 5 of the VRA was the most impactful provision since it stops the dilution of voting rights before it begins. Lawsuits take a long time, and it may impact the next election before it is fully adjudicated. Why not update the VRA, revive Section 4 based on updated data?


On your assumption that I am making an originalist argument, I don't think that is right. When the women allies worked on the 14th amendment, and they saw the final voting rights portion (Section 2 and not Section 1), they expressed their public dismay that they were left behind. Why? Section 1, if it were intended to cover voting rights, would have covered women too. And it would have covered felons and minors. However, the reason they felt left behind was that Section 2 of the 14th Amendment only addressed men. So, clearly, it was understood that Section 1 does not cover voting rights. Otherwise, looking at Section 1, women's suffrage group would have been overjoyed. In fact, few years after the passing of the 14th amendment and the realization that voting rights was also an important aspect needed to integrate the former slaves, they passed the 15th amendment. If Section 1 of 14th amendment was intended to cover voting rights, there was no need to adopt the 15th amendment but instead just enforce the 14th amendment. Same with the 19th amendment. It would not have been necessary if it was understood that the 14th amendment covered voting rights since Section 1 of the 14th amendment does not discriminate based on color or gender. It is not an originalist argument. It is based on case law history that did not find voting laws unconstitutional for violating Section 1 of the 14th amendment. Maybe you can cite a case law where you think, beyond the plain reading, precedent establishes equal protection clause of the 14th amendment extending to voting rights.

On political gerrymandering, I am not sure what you mean here. We agree that the court held that political gerrymandering is a political issue not subject to review by the judiciary branch. How is a political issue resolved by the only body discharged with resolving (legislative) anything but permissible? Whatever is left solely to one body of the government is legal once resolved by the only authority with the delegation. So, what would be the justification by Congress to takeover portions of redistricting otherwise left to the states? Not sure we are saying anything different, but maybe I am missing a nuance there. It is kind of like impeachment. The courts held that is a political matter that is resolved by the political body delegated and not subject to judicial review. So, the recent impeachment was permissible because the only body authorized (House) impeached the former president. End of story.

I agree that it was a bit weak of the SC to hold that Section 4 of the VRA was unconstitutional. Just like you, I don't know if I follow their reasoning that, since only the outdated data was used, there was no demonstration of a state interest necessary to justify federal reach into what has historically been a state matter. I think the fact that there was so much progress shows that it is effective and that it works, and it is exactly within the authority granted to Congress under Section 2 of the 15th amendment. Hated the Shelby ruling but also shows what we can expect from this court on federalism and voting rights.
It's my understanding that Section 2 of the VRA is the very point of contention in the upcoming Supreme Court case involving Arizona election laws. From the cursory reading of VRA history that I've done as a result of this discussion, it looks like the Supreme Court did uphold the constitutionality of Section 2 in 1982, but because of how the Shelby holding gutted Section 4 and made Section 5 virtually moot, state legislatures are now challenging it again - not too unlike how multiple states saw a new opening to challenge the Affordable Care Act once the 2017 TCJA eliminated the individual mandate. Given how many people including myself expect the Supreme Court to hold in favor of the Arizona laws, it made sense to me to simply go back to what is supposed to be the underlying basis of any Congressionally passed legislation - namely, the Constitution - which is why I've espoused the use of the 14th Amendment directly instead of the VRA.

That said, I don't have a particularly pointed argument for you on the legislative history or case law behind application of Section 1 of the 14th. I mean, I guess I could attempt to search some case law but I get enough of LexisNexis in my day job. My advocacy for using Section of the 14th really comes down to what you could call a textualist reading of it, because on its face, I simply don't see or agree with any interpretation that would suppose that "equal protection" does not extend to protection against voter disenfranchisement. And given the state of modern-day voter suppression, I think the time is ripe to raise that particular argument again, perhaps with nuanced differences that might sufficiently distinguish a new challenge from previous case law.

Regarding political gerrymandering, my point was that the Supreme Court said that it was not the judiciary's role to comment on gerrymandering because that is a political question. I understood their holding to mean that if anyone wants to do anything about gerrymandering, it would have to be the legislative branch (whether state or federal) that passes a law saying as much. By the Court's own logic, this should mean that they also wouldn't step in to overturn legislation (such as HR1) that expressly prohibits political gerrymandering, but I again wouldn't put it past this Court to find some way to weasel around that, hence one more reason why I believe HR1 to be such an inflection point for this country.

And, going back to the original purpose of this thread, that is why I believe every major legislative priority of the Biden administration ultimately ties back to eliminating the filibuster, because there's no other way HR1 gets passed.
Econ For Dummies
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Quote:

And, tying back to the original purpose of this thread, that is why I believe every major legislative priority of the Biden administration ultimately ties back to eliminating the filibuster, because there's no other way HR1 gets passed.
That's fine. I don't care for the poison pills hidden within the bill, even though there's a lot of other stuff in the bill I do like. I have more trust in the courts to deal with voting rights after this past election than I do in the parties to not tilt the balance in the favor of the duopoly.
JeffBear07
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SFBear92 said:

Quote:

And, tying back to the original purpose of this thread, that is why I believe every major legislative priority of the Biden administration ultimately ties back to eliminating the filibuster, because there's no other way HR1 gets passed.
That's fine. I don't care for the poison pills hidden within the bill, even though there's a lot of other stuff in the bill I do like. I have more trust in the courts to deal with voting rights after this past election than I do in the parties to not tilt the balance in the favor of the duopoly.
There should be more political parties. 4 would be the minimum to achieve some degree of parity between ideas, 5 feels like the ideal if there can even theoretically be a nominally centrist party. Since that seems a long ways off, I'll tend to give more benefit of the doubt to the party that isn't actively trying to subvert this country's governmental system. Regarding the poison pills to which you refer, the only one I can think of off the top of my head is the minimum amount of fundraising needed to receive federal funding. It would probably be better to go by some weighted average of polling, since that does a better job of minimizing the impact of a single wealthy person, but if that's the only downside of the bill, then the benefits and the immediate necessity for their implementation far outweigh that one pitfall.
sycasey
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JeffBear07 said:

SFBear92 said:

Quote:

And, tying back to the original purpose of this thread, that is why I believe every major legislative priority of the Biden administration ultimately ties back to eliminating the filibuster, because there's no other way HR1 gets passed.
That's fine. I don't care for the poison pills hidden within the bill, even though there's a lot of other stuff in the bill I do like. I have more trust in the courts to deal with voting rights after this past election than I do in the parties to not tilt the balance in the favor of the duopoly.
There should be more political parties. 4 would be the minimum to achieve some degree of parity between ideas, 5 feels like the ideal if there can even theoretically be a nominally centrist party. Since that seems a long ways off, I'll tend to give more benefit of the doubt to the party that isn't actively trying to subvert this country's governmental system. Regarding the poison pills to which you refer, the only one I can think of off the top of my head is the minimum amount of fundraising needed to receive federal funding. It would probably be better to go by some weighted average of polling, since that does a better job of minimizing the impact of a single wealthy person, but if that's the only downside of the bill, then the benefits and the immediate necessity for their implementation far outweigh that one pitfall.
The fundraising "poison pill" also seems confusing. Some analysts who read the bill think it's actually reducing the amount of fundraising needed. It probably needs to be clarified in the final version.
JeffBear07
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sycasey said:

JeffBear07 said:

SFBear92 said:

Quote:

And, tying back to the original purpose of this thread, that is why I believe every major legislative priority of the Biden administration ultimately ties back to eliminating the filibuster, because there's no other way HR1 gets passed.
That's fine. I don't care for the poison pills hidden within the bill, even though there's a lot of other stuff in the bill I do like. I have more trust in the courts to deal with voting rights after this past election than I do in the parties to not tilt the balance in the favor of the duopoly.
There should be more political parties. 4 would be the minimum to achieve some degree of parity between ideas, 5 feels like the ideal if there can even theoretically be a nominally centrist party. Since that seems a long ways off, I'll tend to give more benefit of the doubt to the party that isn't actively trying to subvert this country's governmental system. Regarding the poison pills to which you refer, the only one I can think of off the top of my head is the minimum amount of fundraising needed to receive federal funding. It would probably be better to go by some weighted average of polling, since that does a better job of minimizing the impact of a single wealthy person, but if that's the only downside of the bill, then the benefits and the immediate necessity for their implementation far outweigh that one pitfall.
The fundraising "poison pill" also seems confusing. Some analysts who read the bill think it's actually reducing the amount of fundraising needed. It probably needs to be clarified in the final version.
Perhaps I'm ignorant of literature being produced behind the scenes, but it just seems too obvious that there should be an actual open debate, at least on paper record, for every bill so that members of Congress can challenge or request clarification for individual parts. That way, you place the onus on every congressperson to actually read the bills they are voting on and get their name (or at least their party) on the record as having actually contested specific provisions instead of playing hindsight later while also making the authors of a bill be more transparent on smaller items other nuances getting tucked away from public coverage.
sycasey
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JeffBear07 said:

sycasey said:

JeffBear07 said:

SFBear92 said:

Quote:

And, tying back to the original purpose of this thread, that is why I believe every major legislative priority of the Biden administration ultimately ties back to eliminating the filibuster, because there's no other way HR1 gets passed.
That's fine. I don't care for the poison pills hidden within the bill, even though there's a lot of other stuff in the bill I do like. I have more trust in the courts to deal with voting rights after this past election than I do in the parties to not tilt the balance in the favor of the duopoly.
There should be more political parties. 4 would be the minimum to achieve some degree of parity between ideas, 5 feels like the ideal if there can even theoretically be a nominally centrist party. Since that seems a long ways off, I'll tend to give more benefit of the doubt to the party that isn't actively trying to subvert this country's governmental system. Regarding the poison pills to which you refer, the only one I can think of off the top of my head is the minimum amount of fundraising needed to receive federal funding. It would probably be better to go by some weighted average of polling, since that does a better job of minimizing the impact of a single wealthy person, but if that's the only downside of the bill, then the benefits and the immediate necessity for their implementation far outweigh that one pitfall.
The fundraising "poison pill" also seems confusing. Some analysts who read the bill think it's actually reducing the amount of fundraising needed. It probably needs to be clarified in the final version.
Perhaps I'm ignorant of literature being produced behind the scenes, but it just seems too obvious that there should be an actual open debate, at least on paper record, for every bill so that members of Congress can challenge or request clarification for individual parts. That way, you place the onus on every congressperson to actually read the bills they are voting on and get their name (or at least their party) on the record as having actually contested specific provisions instead of playing hindsight later while also making the authors of a bill be more transparent on smaller items other nuances getting tucked away from public coverage.
In principle, that would be great. In practice, I'm not sure how much the general public would actually be able to understand all the details of a large bill like this.
dajo9
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sycasey said:

JeffBear07 said:

sycasey said:

JeffBear07 said:

SFBear92 said:

Quote:

And, tying back to the original purpose of this thread, that is why I believe every major legislative priority of the Biden administration ultimately ties back to eliminating the filibuster, because there's no other way HR1 gets passed.
That's fine. I don't care for the poison pills hidden within the bill, even though there's a lot of other stuff in the bill I do like. I have more trust in the courts to deal with voting rights after this past election than I do in the parties to not tilt the balance in the favor of the duopoly.
There should be more political parties. 4 would be the minimum to achieve some degree of parity between ideas, 5 feels like the ideal if there can even theoretically be a nominally centrist party. Since that seems a long ways off, I'll tend to give more benefit of the doubt to the party that isn't actively trying to subvert this country's governmental system. Regarding the poison pills to which you refer, the only one I can think of off the top of my head is the minimum amount of fundraising needed to receive federal funding. It would probably be better to go by some weighted average of polling, since that does a better job of minimizing the impact of a single wealthy person, but if that's the only downside of the bill, then the benefits and the immediate necessity for their implementation far outweigh that one pitfall.
The fundraising "poison pill" also seems confusing. Some analysts who read the bill think it's actually reducing the amount of fundraising needed. It probably needs to be clarified in the final version.
Perhaps I'm ignorant of literature being produced behind the scenes, but it just seems too obvious that there should be an actual open debate, at least on paper record, for every bill so that members of Congress can challenge or request clarification for individual parts. That way, you place the onus on every congressperson to actually read the bills they are voting on and get their name (or at least their party) on the record as having actually contested specific provisions instead of playing hindsight later while also making the authors of a bill be more transparent on smaller items other nuances getting tucked away from public coverage.
In principle, that would be great. In practice, I'm not sure how much the general public would actually be able to understand all the details of a large bill like this.


In reality things would be taken out of context by partisan media and misinformation would be the largest outcome
American Vermin
sycasey
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dajo9 said:

sycasey said:

JeffBear07 said:

sycasey said:

JeffBear07 said:

SFBear92 said:

Quote:

And, tying back to the original purpose of this thread, that is why I believe every major legislative priority of the Biden administration ultimately ties back to eliminating the filibuster, because there's no other way HR1 gets passed.
That's fine. I don't care for the poison pills hidden within the bill, even though there's a lot of other stuff in the bill I do like. I have more trust in the courts to deal with voting rights after this past election than I do in the parties to not tilt the balance in the favor of the duopoly.
There should be more political parties. 4 would be the minimum to achieve some degree of parity between ideas, 5 feels like the ideal if there can even theoretically be a nominally centrist party. Since that seems a long ways off, I'll tend to give more benefit of the doubt to the party that isn't actively trying to subvert this country's governmental system. Regarding the poison pills to which you refer, the only one I can think of off the top of my head is the minimum amount of fundraising needed to receive federal funding. It would probably be better to go by some weighted average of polling, since that does a better job of minimizing the impact of a single wealthy person, but if that's the only downside of the bill, then the benefits and the immediate necessity for their implementation far outweigh that one pitfall.
The fundraising "poison pill" also seems confusing. Some analysts who read the bill think it's actually reducing the amount of fundraising needed. It probably needs to be clarified in the final version.
Perhaps I'm ignorant of literature being produced behind the scenes, but it just seems too obvious that there should be an actual open debate, at least on paper record, for every bill so that members of Congress can challenge or request clarification for individual parts. That way, you place the onus on every congressperson to actually read the bills they are voting on and get their name (or at least their party) on the record as having actually contested specific provisions instead of playing hindsight later while also making the authors of a bill be more transparent on smaller items other nuances getting tucked away from public coverage.
In principle, that would be great. In practice, I'm not sure how much the general public would actually be able to understand all the details of a large bill like this.
In reality things would be taken out of context by partisan media and misinformation would be the largest outcome
This seems to be true of all things, yes.
AunBear89
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sycasey said:

dajo9 said:

sycasey said:

JeffBear07 said:

sycasey said:

JeffBear07 said:

SFBear92 said:

Quote:

And, tying back to the original purpose of this thread, that is why I believe every major legislative priority of the Biden administration ultimately ties back to eliminating the filibuster, because there's no other way HR1 gets passed.
That's fine. I don't care for the poison pills hidden within the bill, even though there's a lot of other stuff in the bill I do like. I have more trust in the courts to deal with voting rights after this past election than I do in the parties to not tilt the balance in the favor of the duopoly.
There should be more political parties. 4 would be the minimum to achieve some degree of parity between ideas, 5 feels like the ideal if there can even theoretically be a nominally centrist party. Since that seems a long ways off, I'll tend to give more benefit of the doubt to the party that isn't actively trying to subvert this country's governmental system. Regarding the poison pills to which you refer, the only one I can think of off the top of my head is the minimum amount of fundraising needed to receive federal funding. It would probably be better to go by some weighted average of polling, since that does a better job of minimizing the impact of a single wealthy person, but if that's the only downside of the bill, then the benefits and the immediate necessity for their implementation far outweigh that one pitfall.
The fundraising "poison pill" also seems confusing. Some analysts who read the bill think it's actually reducing the amount of fundraising needed. It probably needs to be clarified in the final version.
Perhaps I'm ignorant of literature being produced behind the scenes, but it just seems too obvious that there should be an actual open debate, at least on paper record, for every bill so that members of Congress can challenge or request clarification for individual parts. That way, you place the onus on every congressperson to actually read the bills they are voting on and get their name (or at least their party) on the record as having actually contested specific provisions instead of playing hindsight later while also making the authors of a bill be more transparent on smaller items other nuances getting tucked away from public coverage.
In principle, that would be great. In practice, I'm not sure how much the general public would actually be able to understand all the details of a large bill like this.
In reality things would be taken out of context by partisan media and misinformation would be the largest outcome
This seems to be true of all things, yes.


And who is going to produce the picture book versions of the bills so MTG and Boebert and Gohmert and Jordon can read them?
"There are three kinds of lies: lies, damned lies, and statistics." -- (maybe) Benjamin Disraeli, popularized by Mark Twain
JeffBear07
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dajo9 said:

sycasey said:

JeffBear07 said:

sycasey said:

JeffBear07 said:

SFBear92 said:

Quote:

And, tying back to the original purpose of this thread, that is why I believe every major legislative priority of the Biden administration ultimately ties back to eliminating the filibuster, because there's no other way HR1 gets passed.
That's fine. I don't care for the poison pills hidden within the bill, even though there's a lot of other stuff in the bill I do like. I have more trust in the courts to deal with voting rights after this past election than I do in the parties to not tilt the balance in the favor of the duopoly.
There should be more political parties. 4 would be the minimum to achieve some degree of parity between ideas, 5 feels like the ideal if there can even theoretically be a nominally centrist party. Since that seems a long ways off, I'll tend to give more benefit of the doubt to the party that isn't actively trying to subvert this country's governmental system. Regarding the poison pills to which you refer, the only one I can think of off the top of my head is the minimum amount of fundraising needed to receive federal funding. It would probably be better to go by some weighted average of polling, since that does a better job of minimizing the impact of a single wealthy person, but if that's the only downside of the bill, then the benefits and the immediate necessity for their implementation far outweigh that one pitfall.
The fundraising "poison pill" also seems confusing. Some analysts who read the bill think it's actually reducing the amount of fundraising needed. It probably needs to be clarified in the final version.
Perhaps I'm ignorant of literature being produced behind the scenes, but it just seems too obvious that there should be an actual open debate, at least on paper record, for every bill so that members of Congress can challenge or request clarification for individual parts. That way, you place the onus on every congressperson to actually read the bills they are voting on and get their name (or at least their party) on the record as having actually contested specific provisions instead of playing hindsight later while also making the authors of a bill be more transparent on smaller items other nuances getting tucked away from public coverage.
In principle, that would be great. In practice, I'm not sure how much the general public would actually be able to understand all the details of a large bill like this.


In reality things would be taken out of context by partisan media and misinformation would be the largest outcome
Isn't that already the case anyway? I'll concede that what I floated wasn't much more than an off-the-cuff proposal but there's got to be some better way to hold politicians accountable for what they've already voted for and against. More likely I suppose, our polarized media climate makes that nearly impossible, for shame.
Unit2Sucks
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JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. %A0I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. %A0Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? %A0Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. %A0I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. %A0Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. %A0The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. %A0I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. %A0I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. %A0So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. %A0To say they are different concepts is wrong. %A0The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. %A0It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. %A0Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. %A0Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. %A0So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills. %A0

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. %A0In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won. %A0

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. %A0If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. %A0And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless. %A0

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. %A0Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. %A0Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. %A0If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. %A0He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. %A0The fight for $15 is just beginning. %A0Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. %A0Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. %A0She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. %A0After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? %A0If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." %A0So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. %A0 You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it. %A0

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. %A0Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. %A0The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. %A0The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. %A0What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. %A0What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. %A0That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal. %A0

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. %A0Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. %A0I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment. %A0
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. %A0I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. %A0First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. %A0I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. %A0In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. %A0Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. %A0On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. %A0But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout. %A0

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). %A0Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. %A0So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. %A0And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. %A0It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. %A0While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. %A0The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. %A0Why? %A0Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. %A0And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. %A0And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. %A0Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. %A0I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. %A0Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). %A0We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. %A0With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. %A0My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. %A0You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. %A0So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. %A0Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. %A0My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. %A0Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it. %A0

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. %A0If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless. %A0

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. %A0Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. %A0Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. %A0I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. %A0Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. %A0It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. %A0I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. %A0Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. %A0From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.


By the way, I love this discussion and your detailed and learned presentation of your argument. %A0I type my post on my phone while generally doing something else (currently on Peloton) so forgive my lack of eloquence.

Two things I want to address. %A014th amendment and judicial review.

It looks like you are focused on Section 1 of the 14th amendment and not Section 2 as I assumed. %A0

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The first part was to guarantee that former slaves could not be denied citizenship. %A0However, citizenship was a requirement to voting but not a guarantee of voting rights. %A0Citizens were denied voting rights all the time whether based on age, conviction or gender even after the passage of the 14th amendment. %A0The equal protection clause of the last clause of Section 1, which applies to both citizens and non citizens, extends the bill of rights protection not only from federal laws but also state laws. %A0The bill of rights does not extend to voting rights since voting rights obviously are denied to non-citizens all the time while equal protection and bill of rights apply to non-citizens. Also, if Section 1 of the 14th amendment meant to cover voting rights, Section 2 would be unnecessary since denial of voting rights would be illegal and the 15th amendment would be superfluous.

As far as judicial review, outside of bill of rights, it is not always clear what standard applies. %A0But in any case, there must be government's interest and the sufficient narrowness of the law's design. %A0In the majority opinion in Shelby, the court never really got to the narrowness of the law's design since it didn't find a sufficient government's interest, referencing lack of %A0"exceptional circumstances" that would justify government's interest since the court believed outdated data was being used as basis for the coverage formula. %A0Whether they were viewing it from the lens of legitimate interest (rational basis test) or compelling interest (strict scrutiny test) is not clear. %A0What is clear is that the dissent believes a rational basis review is justified and believed there was legitimate interest. %A0So, while I am not familiar with HR1 and what it provides (will review when it becomes law since constitutionality review by the courts is not ripe until it becomes law), I believe the VRA should be updated with congressional record showing updated data was used as justification for the coverage formula so that voting laws in covered states or district must be precleared by the federal government before going into effect. %A0
That's far more eloquence than I would even try over the phone.

Yeah I've been referring to the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment, which certainly has decades of jurisprudence, some of it conflicting and seemingly nothing ever dispositive. %A0To me though, voting rights are so foundational to this country and its governmental operation that they should be given the utmost protection akin to a protected class. %A0Thus, any laws that would abridge the ability of any substantial portion of citizens to vote should be analyzed under the strict scrutiny / compelling interest standard. %A0Namely, the burden of proof as to why any law restricting voting ability is needed and appropriately narrowly tailored should lie with the government; there shouldn't be any initial burden on the presumptive plaintiffs to prove that they are being inconvenienced. %A0Let's take another of the proposed voter suppression laws in Georgia, which would make it illegal to pass out food and water to people standing in line to vote. %A0I'm not sure that should even pass a rational basis test, not to mention that that is just salt in the wound when current Georgia state restrictions already force many people (in heavily African-American communities, big surprise) to wait hours in line through no fault or desire of their own. %A0But again, who knows when or even if this current Supreme Court will drop its facade of non-partisanship on this specific issue of voting rights.

I see you making a bit of what sounds like an originalist argument as to whether Section 1 of the 14th was meant to cover voting rights, since the 15th Amendment would then seem superfluous. %A0Matter of philosophy, I don't subscribe at all to originalist approaches to interpreting the Constitution and its amendments but we can set that aside for now. %A0I would just say that there are at least two other amendments that under your argument would also seem superfluous: the 19th Amendment granting women the right to vote and the 24th Amendment prohibition against a poll tax (full disclosure, I had to look up which number this was). %A0I have no doubt that at the time the 14th Amendment was passed, there was hardly any thought given as to whether women should be allowed to vote. %A0But if the spirit of the 14th Amendment - presumably that all people should be equally protected under federal and state laws - is to be abided, then I think it's very difficult to argue that women should not already be inherently covered by the 14th, despite the presence of the 19th. %A0Likewise, you would think that same spirit applies to economically disadvantaged people, despite the presence of the 24th. %A0So I would personally dispute that the 14th Amendment does not have power in a constitutional argument over voting rights. %A0

Also, just one note of interest from your subsequent post, you mention that the Supreme Court has cleared political gerrymandering as permissible. %A0This is a bit semantic, but I believe technically, the Supreme Court simply said that it is not an issue for the courts to take up, presumably punting that issue to be legislated against. %A0Setting aside the seemingly obvious fact that much political gerrymandering is really racial gerrymandering without being explicit, I find this to be one more example of how the current Supreme Court has been completely disingenuous on any issue relating to voting rights. %A0And to link that back to the Court's Shelby argument that the data was outdated, even if it had chosen to adjudicate gerrymandering on a substantive level, I don't have any faith that this current Court would intelligently look at the data anyway. %A0So just an overall s***show at the moment.
On the argument you are making based on the 14th amendment, wouldn't it better made under Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act? %A0I am not an expert here but I thought Congress clarified that, unlike Section 1 of the 15th Amendment, no intent was required to be proven but only the disparate impact to allege violation of Section 2 of the VRA. %A0Since Section 2 has already passed the judicial review by the SC, why not use that as the basis?

But here is my take on all this. %A0Section 5 of the VRA was the most impactful provision since it stops the dilution of voting rights before it begins. %A0Lawsuits take a long time, and it may impact the next election before it is fully adjudicated. %A0Why not update the VRA, revive Section 4 based on updated data? %A0


On your assumption that I am making an originalist argument, I don't think that is right. %A0When the women allies worked on the 14th amendment, and they saw the final voting rights portion (Section 2 and not Section 1), they expressed their public dismay that they were left behind. %A0Why? %A0Section 1, if it were intended to cover voting rights, would have covered women too. %A0And it would have covered felons and minors. %A0However, the reason they felt left behind was that Section 2 of the 14th Amendment only addressed men. %A0So, clearly, it was understood that Section 1 does not cover voting rights. %A0Otherwise, looking at Section 1, women's suffrage group would have been overjoyed. %A0In fact, few years after the passing of the 14th amendment and the realization that voting rights was also an important aspect needed to integrate the former slaves, they passed the 15th amendment. %A0If Section 1 of 14th amendment was intended to cover voting rights, there was no need to adopt the 15th amendment but instead just enforce the 14th amendment. %A0Same with the 19th amendment. %A0It would not have been necessary if it was understood that the 14th amendment covered voting rights since Section 1 of the 14th amendment does not discriminate based on color or gender. %A0It is not an originalist argument. %A0It is based on case law history that did not find voting laws unconstitutional for violating Section 1 of the 14th amendment. %A0Maybe you can cite a case law where you think, beyond the plain reading, precedent establishes equal protection clause of the 14th amendment extending to voting rights. %A0

On political gerrymandering, I am not sure what you mean here. %A0We agree that the %A0court held that political gerrymandering is a political issue not subject to review by the judiciary branch. %A0How is a political issue resolved by the only body discharged with resolving (legislative) anything but permissible? %A0Whatever is left solely to one body of the government is legal once resolved by the only authority with the delegation. %A0So, what would be the justification by Congress to takeover portions of redistricting otherwise left to the states? %A0Not sure we are saying anything different, but maybe I am missing a nuance there. %A0It is kind of like impeachment. %A0The courts held that is a political matter that is resolved by the political body delegated and not subject to judicial review. %A0So, the recent impeachment was permissible because the only body authorized (House) impeached the former president. %A0End of story.

I agree that it was a bit weak of the SC to hold that Section 4 of the VRA was unconstitutional. %A0Just like you, I don't know if I follow their reasoning that, since only the outdated data was used, there was no demonstration of a state interest necessary to justify federal reach into what has historically been a state matter. %A0I think the fact that there was so much progress shows that it is effective and that it works, and it is exactly within the authority granted to Congress under Section 2 of the 15th amendment. %A0Hated the Shelby ruling but also shows what we can expect from this court on federalism and voting rights.
That said, I don't have a particularly pointed argument for you on the legislative history or case law behind application of Section 1 of the 14th. %A0I mean, I guess I could attempt to search some case law but I get enough of LexisNexis in my day job. %A0My advocacy for using Section of the 14th really comes down to what you could call a textualist reading of it, because on its face, I simply don't see or agree with any interpretation that would suppose that "equal protection" does not extend to protection against voter disenfranchisement. %A0And given the state of modern-day voter suppression, I think the time is ripe to raise that particular argument again, perhaps with nuanced differences that might sufficiently distinguish a new challenge from previous case law.%A0
I don't think it's hard to construct an argument for reliance on the equal protection clause to enforce voting rights, even ones that weren't in existence until after the 14th amendment.%A0 Once the 15th amendment (and 19th, 24th and 26th amendment) were ratified, citizens became entitled to equal protection for those matters. %A0%A0 You don't have to look any further than Bush v Gore and I can't imagine why you wouldn't apply equal protection jurisprudence to voting rights questions based on those amendments.%A0
calbear93
How long do you want to ignore this user?
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dajo9 said:

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dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it.

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal.

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment.
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout.

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. Why? Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it.

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless.

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.


By the way, I love this discussion and your detailed and learned presentation of your argument. I type my post on my phone while generally doing something else (currently on Peloton) so forgive my lack of eloquence.

Two things I want to address. 14th amendment and judicial review.

It looks like you are focused on Section 1 of the 14th amendment and not Section 2 as I assumed.

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The first part was to guarantee that former slaves could not be denied citizenship. However, citizenship was a requirement to voting but not a guarantee of voting rights. Citizens were denied voting rights all the time whether based on age, conviction or gender even after the passage of the 14th amendment. The equal protection clause of the last clause of Section 1, which applies to both citizens and non citizens, extends the bill of rights protection not only from federal laws but also state laws. The bill of rights does not extend to voting rights since voting rights obviously are denied to non-citizens all the time while equal protection and bill of rights apply to non-citizens. Also, if Section 1 of the 14th amendment meant to cover voting rights, Section 2 would be unnecessary since denial of voting rights would be illegal and the 15th amendment would be superfluous.

As far as judicial review, outside of bill of rights, it is not always clear what standard applies. But in any case, there must be government's interest and the sufficient narrowness of the law's design. In the majority opinion in Shelby, the court never really got to the narrowness of the law's design since it didn't find a sufficient government's interest, referencing lack of "exceptional circumstances" that would justify government's interest since the court believed outdated data was being used as basis for the coverage formula. Whether they were viewing it from the lens of legitimate interest (rational basis test) or compelling interest (strict scrutiny test) is not clear. What is clear is that the dissent believes a rational basis review is justified and believed there was legitimate interest. So, while I am not familiar with HR1 and what it provides (will review when it becomes law since constitutionality review by the courts is not ripe until it becomes law), I believe the VRA should be updated with congressional record showing updated data was used as justification for the coverage formula so that voting laws in covered states or district must be precleared by the federal government before going into effect.
That's far more eloquence than I would even try over the phone.

Yeah I've been referring to the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment, which certainly has decades of jurisprudence, some of it conflicting and seemingly nothing ever dispositive. To me though, voting rights are so foundational to this country and its governmental operation that they should be given the utmost protection akin to a protected class. Thus, any laws that would abridge the ability of any substantial portion of citizens to vote should be analyzed under the strict scrutiny / compelling interest standard. Namely, the burden of proof as to why any law restricting voting ability is needed and appropriately narrowly tailored should lie with the government; there shouldn't be any initial burden on the presumptive plaintiffs to prove that they are being inconvenienced. Let's take another of the proposed voter suppression laws in Georgia, which would make it illegal to pass out food and water to people standing in line to vote. I'm not sure that should even pass a rational basis test, not to mention that that is just salt in the wound when current Georgia state restrictions already force many people (in heavily African-American communities, big surprise) to wait hours in line through no fault or desire of their own. But again, who knows when or even if this current Supreme Court will drop its facade of non-partisanship on this specific issue of voting rights.

I see you making a bit of what sounds like an originalist argument as to whether Section 1 of the 14th was meant to cover voting rights, since the 15th Amendment would then seem superfluous. Matter of philosophy, I don't subscribe at all to originalist approaches to interpreting the Constitution and its amendments but we can set that aside for now. I would just say that there are at least two other amendments that under your argument would also seem superfluous: the 19th Amendment granting women the right to vote and the 24th Amendment prohibition against a poll tax (full disclosure, I had to look up which number this was). I have no doubt that at the time the 14th Amendment was passed, there was hardly any thought given as to whether women should be allowed to vote. But if the spirit of the 14th Amendment - presumably that all people should be equally protected under federal and state laws - is to be abided, then I think it's very difficult to argue that women should not already be inherently covered by the 14th, despite the presence of the 19th. Likewise, you would think that same spirit applies to economically disadvantaged people, despite the presence of the 24th. So I would personally dispute that the 14th Amendment does not have power in a constitutional argument over voting rights.

Also, just one note of interest from your subsequent post, you mention that the Supreme Court has cleared political gerrymandering as permissible. This is a bit semantic, but I believe technically, the Supreme Court simply said that it is not an issue for the courts to take up, presumably punting that issue to be legislated against. Setting aside the seemingly obvious fact that much political gerrymandering is really racial gerrymandering without being explicit, I find this to be one more example of how the current Supreme Court has been completely disingenuous on any issue relating to voting rights. And to link that back to the Court's Shelby argument that the data was outdated, even if it had chosen to adjudicate gerrymandering on a substantive level, I don't have any faith that this current Court would intelligently look at the data anyway. So just an overall s***show at the moment.
On the argument you are making based on the 14th amendment, wouldn't it better made under Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act? I am not an expert here but I thought Congress clarified that, unlike Section 1 of the 15th Amendment, no intent was required to be proven but only the disparate impact to allege violation of Section 2 of the VRA. Since Section 2 has already passed the judicial review by the SC, why not use that as the basis?

But here is my take on all this. Section 5 of the VRA was the most impactful provision since it stops the dilution of voting rights before it begins. Lawsuits take a long time, and it may impact the next election before it is fully adjudicated. Why not update the VRA, revive Section 4 based on updated data?


On your assumption that I am making an originalist argument, I don't think that is right. When the women allies worked on the 14th amendment, and they saw the final voting rights portion (Section 2 and not Section 1), they expressed their public dismay that they were left behind. Why? Section 1, if it were intended to cover voting rights, would have covered women too. And it would have covered felons and minors. However, the reason they felt left behind was that Section 2 of the 14th Amendment only addressed men. So, clearly, it was understood that Section 1 does not cover voting rights. Otherwise, looking at Section 1, women's suffrage group would have been overjoyed. In fact, few years after the passing of the 14th amendment and the realization that voting rights was also an important aspect needed to integrate the former slaves, they passed the 15th amendment. If Section 1 of 14th amendment was intended to cover voting rights, there was no need to adopt the 15th amendment but instead just enforce the 14th amendment. Same with the 19th amendment. It would not have been necessary if it was understood that the 14th amendment covered voting rights since Section 1 of the 14th amendment does not discriminate based on color or gender. It is not an originalist argument. It is based on case law history that did not find voting laws unconstitutional for violating Section 1 of the 14th amendment. Maybe you can cite a case law where you think, beyond the plain reading, precedent establishes equal protection clause of the 14th amendment extending to voting rights.

On political gerrymandering, I am not sure what you mean here. We agree that the court held that political gerrymandering is a political issue not subject to review by the judiciary branch. How is a political issue resolved by the only body discharged with resolving (legislative) anything but permissible? Whatever is left solely to one body of the government is legal once resolved by the only authority with the delegation. So, what would be the justification by Congress to takeover portions of redistricting otherwise left to the states? Not sure we are saying anything different, but maybe I am missing a nuance there. It is kind of like impeachment. The courts held that is a political matter that is resolved by the political body delegated and not subject to judicial review. So, the recent impeachment was permissible because the only body authorized (House) impeached the former president. End of story.

I agree that it was a bit weak of the SC to hold that Section 4 of the VRA was unconstitutional. Just like you, I don't know if I follow their reasoning that, since only the outdated data was used, there was no demonstration of a state interest necessary to justify federal reach into what has historically been a state matter. I think the fact that there was so much progress shows that it is effective and that it works, and it is exactly within the authority granted to Congress under Section 2 of the 15th amendment. Hated the Shelby ruling but also shows what we can expect from this court on federalism and voting rights.


That said, I don't have a particularly pointed argument for you on the legislative history or case law behind application of Section 1 of the 14th. I mean, I guess I could attempt to search some case law but I get enough of LexisNexis in my day job. My advocacy for using Section of the 14th really comes down to what you could call a textualist reading of it, because on its face, I simply don't see or agree with any interpretation that would suppose that "equal protection" does not extend to protection against voter disenfranchisement. And given the state of modern-day voter suppression, I think the time is ripe to raise that particular argument again, perhaps with nuanced differences that might sufficiently distinguish a new challenge from previous case law.


I stand corrected. The Supreme Court has applied the equal protection clause on voting right matters, including Harper v. Virginia and Crawford vs. Marion (which ruled that Voter ID laws did not violate the 14th amendment - with Scalia in concurring opinion arguing the 14th amendment should not apply when there is no evidence of discriminatory intent).
sycasey
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BlueAnon said:

sycasey said:

SFBear92 said:

BlueAnon said:

sycasey said:

BlueAnon said:

Quote:

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress.
You fool.

That's not Republican messaging. That's progressive messaging.

#BlueAnon



Apparently libertarians now speak for "progressives."









This guy's Instagram feed is one of the most pretentious things I've ever seen.

https://www.instagram.com/arenrlebrun/

I think we've definitely got a cosplay socialist here.
JeffBear07
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calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it.

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal.

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment.
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout.

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. Why? Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it.

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless.

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.


By the way, I love this discussion and your detailed and learned presentation of your argument. I type my post on my phone while generally doing something else (currently on Peloton) so forgive my lack of eloquence.

Two things I want to address. 14th amendment and judicial review.

It looks like you are focused on Section 1 of the 14th amendment and not Section 2 as I assumed.

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The first part was to guarantee that former slaves could not be denied citizenship. However, citizenship was a requirement to voting but not a guarantee of voting rights. Citizens were denied voting rights all the time whether based on age, conviction or gender even after the passage of the 14th amendment. The equal protection clause of the last clause of Section 1, which applies to both citizens and non citizens, extends the bill of rights protection not only from federal laws but also state laws. The bill of rights does not extend to voting rights since voting rights obviously are denied to non-citizens all the time while equal protection and bill of rights apply to non-citizens. Also, if Section 1 of the 14th amendment meant to cover voting rights, Section 2 would be unnecessary since denial of voting rights would be illegal and the 15th amendment would be superfluous.

As far as judicial review, outside of bill of rights, it is not always clear what standard applies. But in any case, there must be government's interest and the sufficient narrowness of the law's design. In the majority opinion in Shelby, the court never really got to the narrowness of the law's design since it didn't find a sufficient government's interest, referencing lack of "exceptional circumstances" that would justify government's interest since the court believed outdated data was being used as basis for the coverage formula. Whether they were viewing it from the lens of legitimate interest (rational basis test) or compelling interest (strict scrutiny test) is not clear. What is clear is that the dissent believes a rational basis review is justified and believed there was legitimate interest. So, while I am not familiar with HR1 and what it provides (will review when it becomes law since constitutionality review by the courts is not ripe until it becomes law), I believe the VRA should be updated with congressional record showing updated data was used as justification for the coverage formula so that voting laws in covered states or district must be precleared by the federal government before going into effect.
That's far more eloquence than I would even try over the phone.

Yeah I've been referring to the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment, which certainly has decades of jurisprudence, some of it conflicting and seemingly nothing ever dispositive. To me though, voting rights are so foundational to this country and its governmental operation that they should be given the utmost protection akin to a protected class. Thus, any laws that would abridge the ability of any substantial portion of citizens to vote should be analyzed under the strict scrutiny / compelling interest standard. Namely, the burden of proof as to why any law restricting voting ability is needed and appropriately narrowly tailored should lie with the government; there shouldn't be any initial burden on the presumptive plaintiffs to prove that they are being inconvenienced. Let's take another of the proposed voter suppression laws in Georgia, which would make it illegal to pass out food and water to people standing in line to vote. I'm not sure that should even pass a rational basis test, not to mention that that is just salt in the wound when current Georgia state restrictions already force many people (in heavily African-American communities, big surprise) to wait hours in line through no fault or desire of their own. But again, who knows when or even if this current Supreme Court will drop its facade of non-partisanship on this specific issue of voting rights.

I see you making a bit of what sounds like an originalist argument as to whether Section 1 of the 14th was meant to cover voting rights, since the 15th Amendment would then seem superfluous. Matter of philosophy, I don't subscribe at all to originalist approaches to interpreting the Constitution and its amendments but we can set that aside for now. I would just say that there are at least two other amendments that under your argument would also seem superfluous: the 19th Amendment granting women the right to vote and the 24th Amendment prohibition against a poll tax (full disclosure, I had to look up which number this was). I have no doubt that at the time the 14th Amendment was passed, there was hardly any thought given as to whether women should be allowed to vote. But if the spirit of the 14th Amendment - presumably that all people should be equally protected under federal and state laws - is to be abided, then I think it's very difficult to argue that women should not already be inherently covered by the 14th, despite the presence of the 19th. Likewise, you would think that same spirit applies to economically disadvantaged people, despite the presence of the 24th. So I would personally dispute that the 14th Amendment does not have power in a constitutional argument over voting rights.

Also, just one note of interest from your subsequent post, you mention that the Supreme Court has cleared political gerrymandering as permissible. This is a bit semantic, but I believe technically, the Supreme Court simply said that it is not an issue for the courts to take up, presumably punting that issue to be legislated against. Setting aside the seemingly obvious fact that much political gerrymandering is really racial gerrymandering without being explicit, I find this to be one more example of how the current Supreme Court has been completely disingenuous on any issue relating to voting rights. And to link that back to the Court's Shelby argument that the data was outdated, even if it had chosen to adjudicate gerrymandering on a substantive level, I don't have any faith that this current Court would intelligently look at the data anyway. So just an overall s***show at the moment.
On the argument you are making based on the 14th amendment, wouldn't it better made under Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act? I am not an expert here but I thought Congress clarified that, unlike Section 1 of the 15th Amendment, no intent was required to be proven but only the disparate impact to allege violation of Section 2 of the VRA. Since Section 2 has already passed the judicial review by the SC, why not use that as the basis?

But here is my take on all this. Section 5 of the VRA was the most impactful provision since it stops the dilution of voting rights before it begins. Lawsuits take a long time, and it may impact the next election before it is fully adjudicated. Why not update the VRA, revive Section 4 based on updated data?


On your assumption that I am making an originalist argument, I don't think that is right. When the women allies worked on the 14th amendment, and they saw the final voting rights portion (Section 2 and not Section 1), they expressed their public dismay that they were left behind. Why? Section 1, if it were intended to cover voting rights, would have covered women too. And it would have covered felons and minors. However, the reason they felt left behind was that Section 2 of the 14th Amendment only addressed men. So, clearly, it was understood that Section 1 does not cover voting rights. Otherwise, looking at Section 1, women's suffrage group would have been overjoyed. In fact, few years after the passing of the 14th amendment and the realization that voting rights was also an important aspect needed to integrate the former slaves, they passed the 15th amendment. If Section 1 of 14th amendment was intended to cover voting rights, there was no need to adopt the 15th amendment but instead just enforce the 14th amendment. Same with the 19th amendment. It would not have been necessary if it was understood that the 14th amendment covered voting rights since Section 1 of the 14th amendment does not discriminate based on color or gender. It is not an originalist argument. It is based on case law history that did not find voting laws unconstitutional for violating Section 1 of the 14th amendment. Maybe you can cite a case law where you think, beyond the plain reading, precedent establishes equal protection clause of the 14th amendment extending to voting rights.

On political gerrymandering, I am not sure what you mean here. We agree that the court held that political gerrymandering is a political issue not subject to review by the judiciary branch. How is a political issue resolved by the only body discharged with resolving (legislative) anything but permissible? Whatever is left solely to one body of the government is legal once resolved by the only authority with the delegation. So, what would be the justification by Congress to takeover portions of redistricting otherwise left to the states? Not sure we are saying anything different, but maybe I am missing a nuance there. It is kind of like impeachment. The courts held that is a political matter that is resolved by the political body delegated and not subject to judicial review. So, the recent impeachment was permissible because the only body authorized (House) impeached the former president. End of story.

I agree that it was a bit weak of the SC to hold that Section 4 of the VRA was unconstitutional. Just like you, I don't know if I follow their reasoning that, since only the outdated data was used, there was no demonstration of a state interest necessary to justify federal reach into what has historically been a state matter. I think the fact that there was so much progress shows that it is effective and that it works, and it is exactly within the authority granted to Congress under Section 2 of the 15th amendment. Hated the Shelby ruling but also shows what we can expect from this court on federalism and voting rights.


That said, I don't have a particularly pointed argument for you on the legislative history or case law behind application of Section 1 of the 14th. I mean, I guess I could attempt to search some case law but I get enough of LexisNexis in my day job. My advocacy for using Section of the 14th really comes down to what you could call a textualist reading of it, because on its face, I simply don't see or agree with any interpretation that would suppose that "equal protection" does not extend to protection against voter disenfranchisement. And given the state of modern-day voter suppression, I think the time is ripe to raise that particular argument again, perhaps with nuanced differences that might sufficiently distinguish a new challenge from previous case law.


I stand corrected. The Supreme Court has applied the equal protection clause on voting right matters, including Harper v. Virginia and Crawford vs. Marion (which ruled that Voter ID laws did not violate the 14th amendment - with Scalia in concurring opinion arguing the 14th amendment should not apply when there is no evidence of discriminatory intent).
Just putting in some quick thoughts on these two cases you pulled up:
Harper v. Virginia: The first thing I noticed about this case when I looked it up was that the issue in question was that of a poll tax. The second thing I noticed was that the decision was rendered two years after the 24th Amendment was passed. To me, this immediately indicates that there is at least precedent for using the 14th Amendment as a basis for striking down a voting rights law even though a later amendment addressing the very issue in question already exists.

Crawford v Marion: A little surprised to see that Stevens joined the conservative majority in ruling that Indiana's voter ID law was constitutional, though I guess Stevens did originally come from a more conservative approach to jurisprudence in his earlier years. I'll admit I'm too lazy to look it up myself, but I'd be curious to see the data that he and the majority relied upon to determine that the number of people who would be burdened by the voter ID law is exceeded by the number of potential voter fraud cases that the law would prevent. This case seems pretty analogous to certain elements of the Big Lie over the past few months.
JeffBear07
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Unit2Sucks said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

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calbear93 said:

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calbear93 said:

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calbear93 said:

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dajo9 said:

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dajo9 said:

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dajo9 said:

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dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. %A0I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. %A0Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? %A0Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. %A0I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. %A0Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. %A0The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. %A0I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. %A0I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. %A0So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. %A0To say they are different concepts is wrong. %A0The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. %A0It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. %A0Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. %A0Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. %A0So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills. %A0

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. %A0In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won. %A0

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. %A0If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. %A0And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless. %A0

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. %A0Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. %A0Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. %A0If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. %A0He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. %A0The fight for $15 is just beginning. %A0Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. %A0Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. %A0She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. %A0After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? %A0If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." %A0So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. %A0 You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it. %A0

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. %A0Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. %A0The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. %A0The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. %A0What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. %A0What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. %A0That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal. %A0

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. %A0Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. %A0I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment. %A0
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. %A0I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. %A0First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. %A0I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. %A0In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. %A0Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. %A0On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. %A0But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout. %A0

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). %A0Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. %A0So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. %A0And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. %A0It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. %A0While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. %A0The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. %A0Why? %A0Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. %A0And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. %A0And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. %A0Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. %A0I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. %A0Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). %A0We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. %A0With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. %A0My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. %A0You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. %A0So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. %A0Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. %A0My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. %A0Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it. %A0

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. %A0If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless. %A0

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. %A0Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. %A0Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. %A0I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. %A0Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. %A0It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. %A0I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. %A0Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. %A0From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.


By the way, I love this discussion and your detailed and learned presentation of your argument. %A0I type my post on my phone while generally doing something else (currently on Peloton) so forgive my lack of eloquence.

Two things I want to address. %A014th amendment and judicial review.

It looks like you are focused on Section 1 of the 14th amendment and not Section 2 as I assumed. %A0

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The first part was to guarantee that former slaves could not be denied citizenship. %A0However, citizenship was a requirement to voting but not a guarantee of voting rights. %A0Citizens were denied voting rights all the time whether based on age, conviction or gender even after the passage of the 14th amendment. %A0The equal protection clause of the last clause of Section 1, which applies to both citizens and non citizens, extends the bill of rights protection not only from federal laws but also state laws. %A0The bill of rights does not extend to voting rights since voting rights obviously are denied to non-citizens all the time while equal protection and bill of rights apply to non-citizens. Also, if Section 1 of the 14th amendment meant to cover voting rights, Section 2 would be unnecessary since denial of voting rights would be illegal and the 15th amendment would be superfluous.

As far as judicial review, outside of bill of rights, it is not always clear what standard applies. %A0But in any case, there must be government's interest and the sufficient narrowness of the law's design. %A0In the majority opinion in Shelby, the court never really got to the narrowness of the law's design since it didn't find a sufficient government's interest, referencing lack of %A0"exceptional circumstances" that would justify government's interest since the court believed outdated data was being used as basis for the coverage formula. %A0Whether they were viewing it from the lens of legitimate interest (rational basis test) or compelling interest (strict scrutiny test) is not clear. %A0What is clear is that the dissent believes a rational basis review is justified and believed there was legitimate interest. %A0So, while I am not familiar with HR1 and what it provides (will review when it becomes law since constitutionality review by the courts is not ripe until it becomes law), I believe the VRA should be updated with congressional record showing updated data was used as justification for the coverage formula so that voting laws in covered states or district must be precleared by the federal government before going into effect. %A0
That's far more eloquence than I would even try over the phone.

Yeah I've been referring to the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment, which certainly has decades of jurisprudence, some of it conflicting and seemingly nothing ever dispositive. %A0To me though, voting rights are so foundational to this country and its governmental operation that they should be given the utmost protection akin to a protected class. %A0Thus, any laws that would abridge the ability of any substantial portion of citizens to vote should be analyzed under the strict scrutiny / compelling interest standard. %A0Namely, the burden of proof as to why any law restricting voting ability is needed and appropriately narrowly tailored should lie with the government; there shouldn't be any initial burden on the presumptive plaintiffs to prove that they are being inconvenienced. %A0Let's take another of the proposed voter suppression laws in Georgia, which would make it illegal to pass out food and water to people standing in line to vote. %A0I'm not sure that should even pass a rational basis test, not to mention that that is just salt in the wound when current Georgia state restrictions already force many people (in heavily African-American communities, big surprise) to wait hours in line through no fault or desire of their own. %A0But again, who knows when or even if this current Supreme Court will drop its facade of non-partisanship on this specific issue of voting rights.

I see you making a bit of what sounds like an originalist argument as to whether Section 1 of the 14th was meant to cover voting rights, since the 15th Amendment would then seem superfluous. %A0Matter of philosophy, I don't subscribe at all to originalist approaches to interpreting the Constitution and its amendments but we can set that aside for now. %A0I would just say that there are at least two other amendments that under your argument would also seem superfluous: the 19th Amendment granting women the right to vote and the 24th Amendment prohibition against a poll tax (full disclosure, I had to look up which number this was). %A0I have no doubt that at the time the 14th Amendment was passed, there was hardly any thought given as to whether women should be allowed to vote. %A0But if the spirit of the 14th Amendment - presumably that all people should be equally protected under federal and state laws - is to be abided, then I think it's very difficult to argue that women should not already be inherently covered by the 14th, despite the presence of the 19th. %A0Likewise, you would think that same spirit applies to economically disadvantaged people, despite the presence of the 24th. %A0So I would personally dispute that the 14th Amendment does not have power in a constitutional argument over voting rights. %A0

Also, just one note of interest from your subsequent post, you mention that the Supreme Court has cleared political gerrymandering as permissible. %A0This is a bit semantic, but I believe technically, the Supreme Court simply said that it is not an issue for the courts to take up, presumably punting that issue to be legislated against. %A0Setting aside the seemingly obvious fact that much political gerrymandering is really racial gerrymandering without being explicit, I find this to be one more example of how the current Supreme Court has been completely disingenuous on any issue relating to voting rights. %A0And to link that back to the Court's Shelby argument that the data was outdated, even if it had chosen to adjudicate gerrymandering on a substantive level, I don't have any faith that this current Court would intelligently look at the data anyway. %A0So just an overall s***show at the moment.
On the argument you are making based on the 14th amendment, wouldn't it better made under Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act? %A0I am not an expert here but I thought Congress clarified that, unlike Section 1 of the 15th Amendment, no intent was required to be proven but only the disparate impact to allege violation of Section 2 of the VRA. %A0Since Section 2 has already passed the judicial review by the SC, why not use that as the basis?

But here is my take on all this. %A0Section 5 of the VRA was the most impactful provision since it stops the dilution of voting rights before it begins. %A0Lawsuits take a long time, and it may impact the next election before it is fully adjudicated. %A0Why not update the VRA, revive Section 4 based on updated data? %A0


On your assumption that I am making an originalist argument, I don't think that is right. %A0When the women allies worked on the 14th amendment, and they saw the final voting rights portion (Section 2 and not Section 1), they expressed their public dismay that they were left behind. %A0Why? %A0Section 1, if it were intended to cover voting rights, would have covered women too. %A0And it would have covered felons and minors. %A0However, the reason they felt left behind was that Section 2 of the 14th Amendment only addressed men. %A0So, clearly, it was understood that Section 1 does not cover voting rights. %A0Otherwise, looking at Section 1, women's suffrage group would have been overjoyed. %A0In fact, few years after the passing of the 14th amendment and the realization that voting rights was also an important aspect needed to integrate the former slaves, they passed the 15th amendment. %A0If Section 1 of 14th amendment was intended to cover voting rights, there was no need to adopt the 15th amendment but instead just enforce the 14th amendment. %A0Same with the 19th amendment. %A0It would not have been necessary if it was understood that the 14th amendment covered voting rights since Section 1 of the 14th amendment does not discriminate based on color or gender. %A0It is not an originalist argument. %A0It is based on case law history that did not find voting laws unconstitutional for violating Section 1 of the 14th amendment. %A0Maybe you can cite a case law where you think, beyond the plain reading, precedent establishes equal protection clause of the 14th amendment extending to voting rights. %A0

On political gerrymandering, I am not sure what you mean here. %A0We agree that the %A0court held that political gerrymandering is a political issue not subject to review by the judiciary branch. %A0How is a political issue resolved by the only body discharged with resolving (legislative) anything but permissible? %A0Whatever is left solely to one body of the government is legal once resolved by the only authority with the delegation. %A0So, what would be the justification by Congress to takeover portions of redistricting otherwise left to the states? %A0Not sure we are saying anything different, but maybe I am missing a nuance there. %A0It is kind of like impeachment. %A0The courts held that is a political matter that is resolved by the political body delegated and not subject to judicial review. %A0So, the recent impeachment was permissible because the only body authorized (House) impeached the former president. %A0End of story.

I agree that it was a bit weak of the SC to hold that Section 4 of the VRA was unconstitutional. %A0Just like you, I don't know if I follow their reasoning that, since only the outdated data was used, there was no demonstration of a state interest necessary to justify federal reach into what has historically been a state matter. %A0I think the fact that there was so much progress shows that it is effective and that it works, and it is exactly within the authority granted to Congress under Section 2 of the 15th amendment. %A0Hated the Shelby ruling but also shows what we can expect from this court on federalism and voting rights.
That said, I don't have a particularly pointed argument for you on the legislative history or case law behind application of Section 1 of the 14th. %A0I mean, I guess I could attempt to search some case law but I get enough of LexisNexis in my day job. %A0My advocacy for using Section of the 14th really comes down to what you could call a textualist reading of it, because on its face, I simply don't see or agree with any interpretation that would suppose that "equal protection" does not extend to protection against voter disenfranchisement. %A0And given the state of modern-day voter suppression, I think the time is ripe to raise that particular argument again, perhaps with nuanced differences that might sufficiently distinguish a new challenge from previous case law.%A0
I don't think it's hard to construct an argument for reliance on the equal protection clause to enforce voting rights, even ones that weren't in existence until after the 14th amendment.%A0 Once the 15th amendment (and 19th, 24th and 26th amendment) were ratified, citizens became entitled to equal protection for those matters. %A0%A0 You don't have to look any further than Bush v Gore and I can't imagine why you wouldn't apply equal protection jurisprudence to voting rights questions based on those amendments.%A0
I generally share your viewpoint. But to the extent that there is any case law that would say otherwise, I'm willing to see it, if only to temper my expectations of this Supreme Court coming to its senses on voting rights.
calbear93
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JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it.

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal.

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment.
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout.

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. Why? Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it.

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless.

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.


By the way, I love this discussion and your detailed and learned presentation of your argument. I type my post on my phone while generally doing something else (currently on Peloton) so forgive my lack of eloquence.

Two things I want to address. 14th amendment and judicial review.

It looks like you are focused on Section 1 of the 14th amendment and not Section 2 as I assumed.

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The first part was to guarantee that former slaves could not be denied citizenship. However, citizenship was a requirement to voting but not a guarantee of voting rights. Citizens were denied voting rights all the time whether based on age, conviction or gender even after the passage of the 14th amendment. The equal protection clause of the last clause of Section 1, which applies to both citizens and non citizens, extends the bill of rights protection not only from federal laws but also state laws. The bill of rights does not extend to voting rights since voting rights obviously are denied to non-citizens all the time while equal protection and bill of rights apply to non-citizens. Also, if Section 1 of the 14th amendment meant to cover voting rights, Section 2 would be unnecessary since denial of voting rights would be illegal and the 15th amendment would be superfluous.

As far as judicial review, outside of bill of rights, it is not always clear what standard applies. But in any case, there must be government's interest and the sufficient narrowness of the law's design. In the majority opinion in Shelby, the court never really got to the narrowness of the law's design since it didn't find a sufficient government's interest, referencing lack of "exceptional circumstances" that would justify government's interest since the court believed outdated data was being used as basis for the coverage formula. Whether they were viewing it from the lens of legitimate interest (rational basis test) or compelling interest (strict scrutiny test) is not clear. What is clear is that the dissent believes a rational basis review is justified and believed there was legitimate interest. So, while I am not familiar with HR1 and what it provides (will review when it becomes law since constitutionality review by the courts is not ripe until it becomes law), I believe the VRA should be updated with congressional record showing updated data was used as justification for the coverage formula so that voting laws in covered states or district must be precleared by the federal government before going into effect.
That's far more eloquence than I would even try over the phone.

Yeah I've been referring to the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment, which certainly has decades of jurisprudence, some of it conflicting and seemingly nothing ever dispositive. To me though, voting rights are so foundational to this country and its governmental operation that they should be given the utmost protection akin to a protected class. Thus, any laws that would abridge the ability of any substantial portion of citizens to vote should be analyzed under the strict scrutiny / compelling interest standard. Namely, the burden of proof as to why any law restricting voting ability is needed and appropriately narrowly tailored should lie with the government; there shouldn't be any initial burden on the presumptive plaintiffs to prove that they are being inconvenienced. Let's take another of the proposed voter suppression laws in Georgia, which would make it illegal to pass out food and water to people standing in line to vote. I'm not sure that should even pass a rational basis test, not to mention that that is just salt in the wound when current Georgia state restrictions already force many people (in heavily African-American communities, big surprise) to wait hours in line through no fault or desire of their own. But again, who knows when or even if this current Supreme Court will drop its facade of non-partisanship on this specific issue of voting rights.

I see you making a bit of what sounds like an originalist argument as to whether Section 1 of the 14th was meant to cover voting rights, since the 15th Amendment would then seem superfluous. Matter of philosophy, I don't subscribe at all to originalist approaches to interpreting the Constitution and its amendments but we can set that aside for now. I would just say that there are at least two other amendments that under your argument would also seem superfluous: the 19th Amendment granting women the right to vote and the 24th Amendment prohibition against a poll tax (full disclosure, I had to look up which number this was). I have no doubt that at the time the 14th Amendment was passed, there was hardly any thought given as to whether women should be allowed to vote. But if the spirit of the 14th Amendment - presumably that all people should be equally protected under federal and state laws - is to be abided, then I think it's very difficult to argue that women should not already be inherently covered by the 14th, despite the presence of the 19th. Likewise, you would think that same spirit applies to economically disadvantaged people, despite the presence of the 24th. So I would personally dispute that the 14th Amendment does not have power in a constitutional argument over voting rights.

Also, just one note of interest from your subsequent post, you mention that the Supreme Court has cleared political gerrymandering as permissible. This is a bit semantic, but I believe technically, the Supreme Court simply said that it is not an issue for the courts to take up, presumably punting that issue to be legislated against. Setting aside the seemingly obvious fact that much political gerrymandering is really racial gerrymandering without being explicit, I find this to be one more example of how the current Supreme Court has been completely disingenuous on any issue relating to voting rights. And to link that back to the Court's Shelby argument that the data was outdated, even if it had chosen to adjudicate gerrymandering on a substantive level, I don't have any faith that this current Court would intelligently look at the data anyway. So just an overall s***show at the moment.
On the argument you are making based on the 14th amendment, wouldn't it better made under Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act? I am not an expert here but I thought Congress clarified that, unlike Section 1 of the 15th Amendment, no intent was required to be proven but only the disparate impact to allege violation of Section 2 of the VRA. Since Section 2 has already passed the judicial review by the SC, why not use that as the basis?

But here is my take on all this. Section 5 of the VRA was the most impactful provision since it stops the dilution of voting rights before it begins. Lawsuits take a long time, and it may impact the next election before it is fully adjudicated. Why not update the VRA, revive Section 4 based on updated data?


On your assumption that I am making an originalist argument, I don't think that is right. When the women allies worked on the 14th amendment, and they saw the final voting rights portion (Section 2 and not Section 1), they expressed their public dismay that they were left behind. Why? Section 1, if it were intended to cover voting rights, would have covered women too. And it would have covered felons and minors. However, the reason they felt left behind was that Section 2 of the 14th Amendment only addressed men. So, clearly, it was understood that Section 1 does not cover voting rights. Otherwise, looking at Section 1, women's suffrage group would have been overjoyed. In fact, few years after the passing of the 14th amendment and the realization that voting rights was also an important aspect needed to integrate the former slaves, they passed the 15th amendment. If Section 1 of 14th amendment was intended to cover voting rights, there was no need to adopt the 15th amendment but instead just enforce the 14th amendment. Same with the 19th amendment. It would not have been necessary if it was understood that the 14th amendment covered voting rights since Section 1 of the 14th amendment does not discriminate based on color or gender. It is not an originalist argument. It is based on case law history that did not find voting laws unconstitutional for violating Section 1 of the 14th amendment. Maybe you can cite a case law where you think, beyond the plain reading, precedent establishes equal protection clause of the 14th amendment extending to voting rights.

On political gerrymandering, I am not sure what you mean here. We agree that the court held that political gerrymandering is a political issue not subject to review by the judiciary branch. How is a political issue resolved by the only body discharged with resolving (legislative) anything but permissible? Whatever is left solely to one body of the government is legal once resolved by the only authority with the delegation. So, what would be the justification by Congress to takeover portions of redistricting otherwise left to the states? Not sure we are saying anything different, but maybe I am missing a nuance there. It is kind of like impeachment. The courts held that is a political matter that is resolved by the political body delegated and not subject to judicial review. So, the recent impeachment was permissible because the only body authorized (House) impeached the former president. End of story.

I agree that it was a bit weak of the SC to hold that Section 4 of the VRA was unconstitutional. Just like you, I don't know if I follow their reasoning that, since only the outdated data was used, there was no demonstration of a state interest necessary to justify federal reach into what has historically been a state matter. I think the fact that there was so much progress shows that it is effective and that it works, and it is exactly within the authority granted to Congress under Section 2 of the 15th amendment. Hated the Shelby ruling but also shows what we can expect from this court on federalism and voting rights.


That said, I don't have a particularly pointed argument for you on the legislative history or case law behind application of Section 1 of the 14th. I mean, I guess I could attempt to search some case law but I get enough of LexisNexis in my day job. My advocacy for using Section of the 14th really comes down to what you could call a textualist reading of it, because on its face, I simply don't see or agree with any interpretation that would suppose that "equal protection" does not extend to protection against voter disenfranchisement. And given the state of modern-day voter suppression, I think the time is ripe to raise that particular argument again, perhaps with nuanced differences that might sufficiently distinguish a new challenge from previous case law.


I stand corrected. The Supreme Court has applied the equal protection clause on voting right matters, including Harper v. Virginia and Crawford vs. Marion (which ruled that Voter ID laws did not violate the 14th amendment - with Scalia in concurring opinion arguing the 14th amendment should not apply when there is no evidence of discriminatory intent).
Just putting in some quick thoughts on these two cases you pulled up:
Harper v. Virginia: The first thing I noticed about this case when I looked it up was that the issue in question was that of a poll tax. The second thing I noticed was that the decision was rendered two years after the 24th Amendment was passed. To me, this immediately indicates that there is at least precedent for using the 14th Amendment as a basis for striking down a voting rights law even though a later amendment addressing the very issue in question already exists.

Crawford v Marion: A little surprised to see that Stevens joined the conservative majority in ruling that Indiana's voter ID law was constitutional, though I guess Stevens did originally come from a more conservative approach to jurisprudence in his earlier years. I'll admit I'm too lazy to look it up myself, but I'd be curious to see the data that he and the majority relied upon to determine that the number of people who would be burdened by the voter ID law is exceeded by the number of potential voter fraud cases that the law would prevent. This case seems pretty analogous to certain elements of the Big Lie over the past few months.
That is a good point on the timing of Harper.

On Crawford, I don't think they applied the formula or quantification you indicate or even needed to do so. What they did was assess whether the state had a legitimate interest in requiring voter ID. They acknowledged that there was very little or any evidence of contemporary instances of fraud. What they did acknowledge was that (i) there was extreme overinflation of voter rolls (which I think both sides acknowledged, sometimes approaching 100% inflation), (ii) there were instances of fraud in limited districts or in mayoral races, and (iii) even without evidence of fraud, there is legitimate interest in providing confidence to the public of security against voter fraud. Based on those they viewed the state interest as legitimate interest.

Since they were applying the rational basis test, they just wanted to see if there was rational connection between the legitimate interest and the rule. What they seemed to have concluded (unavoidably subjective) was that, even for those who are more impacted than others (seniors who were born out of state and have never had a drivers' license - a small universe but probably more minorities than white), the burden on obtaining a birth certificate and driving to a local DMV was not an unreasonable burden. Even for those who were not able, they could vote provisionally and then certify at a court within 10 days.

Not sure I agree with you that it is analogous to the Big Lie since everyone admits there was no evidence of fraud.

I will say this, though. Considering how critical having a valid ID is to maintaining any semblance of participation in the economy (i.e., opening up a bank account instead of paying predatory rates to cash a check, have a debit card to be able to participate in most commerce), maybe the better thing (assuming this is about making lives better and not just about winning elections to stay in power) would be help these people get valid ID (I am saying that to both parties - instead of complaining about potential voter fraud, help people get IDs).
sycasey
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Republicans have a brand new priority. It's . . . cutting taxes for rich people.



Okay, maybe it's not that new.
JeffBear07
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calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

calbear93 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

JeffBear07 said:

dajo9 said:

About 90% of Democratic legislators voted for the $15 minimum wage. I support primarying all 8 of the Democratic Senators who voted against it.

I also support defeating the 100% of Republicans that voted against it.
Since you appear to feel strongly about this, I'm interested in your thoughts on the question I posted upthread. Namely, what is the rationale for inserting a minimum wage provision into a reconciliation bill? Also, of the 8 Democratic senators who voted no, I suspect that a few more than just Sinema would be potentially amenable to a $15 minimum wage outside of reconciliation, so in that hypothetical scenario, would you still support primarying them?


I'm not interested in what Bernie Sanders calls "the archaic and undemocratic" rules of the Senate. I'm interested in results for the American people.
To be clear, I am in full support of a $15 minimum wage. Having said that, budget reconciliation is a completely different concept from the filibuster with a clearly delineated set of parameters that are - in my view anyway - perfectly reasonable. The filibuster, on the other hand, is a concept whose original basis is sketchy at best and whose recent history is anathema to functioning government. I guess I just don't see why the minimum wage fight isn't something better taken up as a stand-alone issue separate from a budget reconciliation bill. I think it's a virtual certainty that several more Democratic senators if not all (looking at you Manchin) would vote in favor of a $15 minimum wage if it didn't go through the reconciliation process, since there apparently isn't an actual justification for considering it a budgetary measure. So why are certain wings of the Democratic party framing this parliamentarian decision as the end-all be-all on the minimum wage question?


Budget reconciliation only exists as a workaround to the filibuster. To say they are different concepts is wrong. The former exists because of the problems caused by the latter.
This got me curious enough to look a little bit into the history of budget reconciliation and I sorta agree and disagree with you here. It looks like the initial concept of budget reconciliation was introduced via the 1974 Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act, which Nixon (R) signed into law. Carter (D) was the first president to actually sign a bill into law using reconciliation. Then Reagan (R) is the first president to really use reconciliation as a regular tool for spending and tax priorities. So yes, it does look like budget reconciliation was originally created as a vehicle for overcoming the filibuster on certain types of bills.

On the other hand, this framework still makes it clear that the intent of budget reconciliation is for budget-related items, so I stand by my assessment that if there are clearly delineated parameters in place, then they should be followed. In the instant case, unless there is some budgetary justification for a minimum wage law, I don't see why this is where the fight for a $15 minimum wage needs to be fought and won.

Ultimately, the near- and mid-term viability of the Democratic party is going to rely heavily on eliminating the filibuster anyway, because unless HR1 passes, state Republicans across the country are going to rig election systems hard against Democratic-leaning voters. If the filibuster is eliminated, raising the minimum wage will become exponentially less difficult. And if at that point, Democrats at large can't find some way of convincing Joe Manchin to vote some form of a minimum wage increase, then that means doing so through budget reconciliation was and has been a lost cause to begin with and the whole current fight over including a minimum wage provision through the current budget reconciliation process was pointless.

Or TL;DR, outspoken progressives need to pick their fights better. Don't succumb to the Republican messaging that Joe Biden and the Democratic Party are already a failure only 2 months after sweeping the presidency and both chambers of congress. Sure, there's a distinct possibility that a godforsaken scenario where nothing getting done indeed comes to pass, but at this moment, Biden and Democratic congressional leadership still have 1.5 years to increase the minimum wage, eliminate the covid threat, etc. If Democratic / progressive constituencies are going to bail on the party's elected officials now, then truly they are a long ways away from understanding the practical reality of how government works and that would just be a tragedy.


I don't see any evidence of Biden supporters abandoning Biden. He is hugely popular and has been a huge success so far not even 2 months in. The fight for $15 is just beginning. Senators opposing it are going to find themselves put under increasing pressure. Maggie Hassan is up for reelection in 2022. She has dug herself a deep hole.

Let me ask you a question since we both know HR1 (a bill intended to ensure the rights of the American people) can't get through the undemocratic Senate. After Republicans use state power to disenfranchise enough Americans to have power despite minority support, will you still support the U.S. Constitution that props up this tyranny over the American people in the name of this useless construct called states rights? If so, why do you believe states having rights is more important than the American people having rights?

To your second point/question, if the Republicans do end up successful in passing their whole spate of voter suppression laws and the Supreme Court upholds (seemingly more likely than not), then I would consider that the biggest middle finger to the Constitution as it exists that we have ever seen in U.S. history and a perfectly good reason to say "F*** it, I guess it's anarchy now until we can write a new one." So this ties back into my belief that if the Democrats don't nuke the filibuster to pass a sufficient minimum wage raise, that means that they aren't nuking the filibuster to pass HR1, and we as a country thus have a far greater problem on our hands than poverty wages anyway.
Sorry to be a stickler for the constitution. You are not one of them, but I have seen so many people who don't have the first clue on what the constitution provides raging against it.

Just from a sense of history on the constitution, the founders were very split on voting rights and who should have it. Until the 14th amendment, the states had complete power to decide who would have voting rights. The 14th amendment also didn't mandate voting right, but only provided a punitive measure in the form of reduced representatives in the house for abridging voting rights. The 15th amendment itself was the first time voting rights was specifically addressed, but only to the extent that it directly and intentionally abridges voting rights on account of race, color or servitude. What was key was that it also gave Congress the authority to make laws to enforce the 15th amendment (remember that the 10th amendment reserves for the states all rights not expressly reserved under the constitution for the federal government).

The main constitutional debate has been (i) is there a law that intentionally and directly discriminates based on race or color (generally no) and, therefore violates Section 1 of the 15th Amendment or (ii) is the voting protection laws beyond the authority granted to the federal government under the 15th amendment. What you are probably thinking about is not the constitution but the Voting Rights Act of 1965 promulgated under Section 2 of the Fifteenth Amendment. That was the first time when even laws that did not patently discriminate based on race but had the effect of discriminating based on race could be made illegal.

The litigation will be whether the new state laws violate the Voting Rights Act. Congress can also make further laws under Section 2 of the 15th Amendment (remember, it is not an amendment to the constitution but only an exercise of authority granted under the constitution and, therefore, only requires a majority in both houses) to make what the states are proposing illegal under the argument that it has the effect of abridging voting rights on account of race or color. I suspect however that even if they tried, they will **** themselves by adding unrelated items on woke bull**** that will then get overturned as violating the the 10th amendment since it does not directly relate to enforcement of the 15th amendment.
I appreciate the more nuanced take, especially in how you see the 15th Amendment and the 1965 Voting Rights Act coming into play. I think you and I differ on this in a couple key ways though. First, I get the sense that you're taking a bit of a textualist approach to the 15th Amendment, which is to say that you're approaching its provisions from a more strictly literal perspective. I personally take, more often than not, a more "general spirit" approach. In this case, I believe that if we are to premise our adjudication of all the upcoming voter suppression laws on the 15th Amendment, we have to look at their net effect and not just their facially intended effect. Take one of the Georgia proposals, for instance, where they want to limit Sunday voting to just one Sunday during the voting period. On its face, it doesn't seem too difficult to make at least the token argument that people of all races and ethnicities go to church on Sunday and thus this proposed law affects everyone equally. But it appears patently obvious that given the fact that black churches in Georgia predominantly use Sunday services to drive their congregations' turnout, the net effect of the law is to suppress black turnout.

And while I know that the Voting Rights Act is at the heart of the current case before the Supreme Court, I'm not relying on that as the end-all be-all of voting rights litigation, because we've already seen that the current Supreme Court composition doesn't care much for common sense when it comes to that law (See Shelby County). Instead, I'm personally looking at this more through the lens of the 14th Amendment - argument being that there are clear and distinctive groups of people whose right to vote is not being protected nearly as much as other constituencies and demographics. So that is why I am framing this as a constitutional argument rather than a legislative one, because of we are going to start interpreting that Constitution to allow for certain groups of people to be discriminated against in their right to vote in net, then we are fundamentally undermining the proper function of Articles I, II, and III in properly representing the people. And if that's the case, then I'm of the view that that Constitution and its corresponding amendments are not worth defending any longer.
Couple of things I think we need to clear up.

The 14th amendment does not guarantee voting rights. It only provides states with a punitive measure in the form of reduced basis for representative for those who are not given voting rights. While voting law cases often bring up both the 14th and the 15th amendment, it is the 15th amendment that is the crux of actually guaranteeing voting rights.

And the 15th amendment is broader than you think. The biggest hammer in the 15th amendment is Section 2. Why? Because it rearranged power allocation between State and Federal on voting matters related to race and color. And Congress used that power to pass the Voting Rights Act that prevented unscrupulous local government from trying to avoid appearances of direct abridgment of voting rights based on color but indirectly resulted in the same abridgment. And the Supreme Court has for the most part upheld the exercise of Section 2 of the 15th Amendment by Congress that made illegal not only intentional abridgment of voting rights but also any action that has the effect (irrespective of intent) of abridging voting rights based on color or race. Where the federal government got tripped up in Shelby vs Holden (glad someone else read the case instead of shooting in ignorance) was when they started requiring all voting laws to pass through a federal gate irrespective of whether they had a discriminatory impact and also choosing certain states and not others. I happened to disagree with the holding because of how fundamental voting right is to our form of government and because you cannot realistically believe that the barriers enacted that had an greatest impact on the poorest minorities were not designed to abridge the voting rights based on color.

If you are a lawyer, you know the different level of judicial review applied by the courts (e.g., strict scrutiny), etc. Unfortunately for the 15th amendment and laws promulgated under the 15th amendment, the courts are applying a high standard that is naturally subjective (e.g., exceptional circumstances necessary to abridge state rights - i.e., is there systematic racism in the voting laws and voting rights). We already know where many of the conservative justices stand on this point. With those lens, it will be hard for any cases to pass that level of judicial review.
I'm not quite syncing up with you here. My argument isn't that the 14th Amendment guarantees voting rights; rather, I'm saying that the 14th Amendment can be used as a basis for challenging voter suppression laws because of its provision for equal protection for all under the law. You're right that the 15th Amendment is the one that explicitly bans voter suppression on the basis of race, but that doesn't mean that it's the only vehicle for pursuing a challenge. So you're going to have to convince me why the 14th Amendment is not an appropriate basis for challenging voter suppression laws.

That said, your meaty explanation of the 15th Amendment suggests that you are looking at our discussion through the narrow lens of the Arizona case currently before the Supreme Court. Within the framework of that particular lawsuit, your discussion of the 15th Amendment is applicable, because it refers directly to the already defanged Voting Rights Act. My position on that law is that the Supreme Court has already demonstrated an unjustified hostility and intentional ignorance towards the law's underlying purpose, so there's no reason to expect that the Court will be a reliable check on voter suppression via the VRA. Hence, HR1 is crucial to the continuance of a functional democracy as we currently know it.

The more conclusory position I laid out earlier is that if HR1 doesn't pass, then certain states will inevitably pass exceptionally onerous voting restrictions obviously designed solely to suppress turnout primarily in communities that tend to vote Democratic, and an artificially stacked Supreme Court will more likely than not find in favor of those states. If that comes to pass, then it's clear in my view that the Constitution has been *******ized to the point of being functionally meaningless.

That segues into your discussion of the different levels of judicial scrutiny that the courts apply. Upfront, I'm not entirely sure which standard you are referring to with your reference to "exceptional circumstances," since I was taught rational basis - intermediate scrutiny - strict scrutiny, but I suspect you are referring to the second which uses substantial government interest as the standard. Given the behavior of many Republican-led states not just in the past few months but since at least 2010, I think the federal government circa 1965 has proven justified in its position that some states simply can't be trusted not to abuse state control over election processes. I would argue that that does pass the intermediate scrutiny test based on the federal government's substantial interest in maintaining integrity in federal elections. Obviously, the Supreme Court has previously disagreed in Shelby and looks poised to disagree again. It is again my argument that the Supreme Court is being intentionally obtuse on this issue for partisan purposes, but since I can't prove that, that's not where my argument ends.

That brings us full circle back to the 14th Amendment and by extension the strict scrutiny test. I believe that many if not all of the voter suppression laws that have been proposed in the past few months should not be found to have passed the strict scrutiny test (which is generally the test used for 14th Amendment issues) because they are predominantly aimed at limiting participation in the electoral process by minority communities and thus depriving specific races and ethnicities of equal protection against disenfranchisement. Your assertion that the 15th Amendment is or has been the dominant factor, while apparently correct within the framework of the Arizona case, is independent of the broad approach I am espousing above. From your other posts, it appears you don't have a particularly established position on HR1, but suffice to say, that is the basket in which I am currently placing all my eggs on the ability for our democracy to remain functional, and from what I've read of it, that law would stand up to any level of scrutiny as well.


By the way, I love this discussion and your detailed and learned presentation of your argument. I type my post on my phone while generally doing something else (currently on Peloton) so forgive my lack of eloquence.

Two things I want to address. 14th amendment and judicial review.

It looks like you are focused on Section 1 of the 14th amendment and not Section 2 as I assumed.

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The first part was to guarantee that former slaves could not be denied citizenship. However, citizenship was a requirement to voting but not a guarantee of voting rights. Citizens were denied voting rights all the time whether based on age, conviction or gender even after the passage of the 14th amendment. The equal protection clause of the last clause of Section 1, which applies to both citizens and non citizens, extends the bill of rights protection not only from federal laws but also state laws. The bill of rights does not extend to voting rights since voting rights obviously are denied to non-citizens all the time while equal protection and bill of rights apply to non-citizens. Also, if Section 1 of the 14th amendment meant to cover voting rights, Section 2 would be unnecessary since denial of voting rights would be illegal and the 15th amendment would be superfluous.

As far as judicial review, outside of bill of rights, it is not always clear what standard applies. But in any case, there must be government's interest and the sufficient narrowness of the law's design. In the majority opinion in Shelby, the court never really got to the narrowness of the law's design since it didn't find a sufficient government's interest, referencing lack of "exceptional circumstances" that would justify government's interest since the court believed outdated data was being used as basis for the coverage formula. Whether they were viewing it from the lens of legitimate interest (rational basis test) or compelling interest (strict scrutiny test) is not clear. What is clear is that the dissent believes a rational basis review is justified and believed there was legitimate interest. So, while I am not familiar with HR1 and what it provides (will review when it becomes law since constitutionality review by the courts is not ripe until it becomes law), I believe the VRA should be updated with congressional record showing updated data was used as justification for the coverage formula so that voting laws in covered states or district must be precleared by the federal government before going into effect.
That's far more eloquence than I would even try over the phone.

Yeah I've been referring to the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment, which certainly has decades of jurisprudence, some of it conflicting and seemingly nothing ever dispositive. To me though, voting rights are so foundational to this country and its governmental operation that they should be given the utmost protection akin to a protected class. Thus, any laws that would abridge the ability of any substantial portion of citizens to vote should be analyzed under the strict scrutiny / compelling interest standard. Namely, the burden of proof as to why any law restricting voting ability is needed and appropriately narrowly tailored should lie with the government; there shouldn't be any initial burden on the presumptive plaintiffs to prove that they are being inconvenienced. Let's take another of the proposed voter suppression laws in Georgia, which would make it illegal to pass out food and water to people standing in line to vote. I'm not sure that should even pass a rational basis test, not to mention that that is just salt in the wound when current Georgia state restrictions already force many people (in heavily African-American communities, big surprise) to wait hours in line through no fault or desire of their own. But again, who knows when or even if this current Supreme Court will drop its facade of non-partisanship on this specific issue of voting rights.

I see you making a bit of what sounds like an originalist argument as to whether Section 1 of the 14th was meant to cover voting rights, since the 15th Amendment would then seem superfluous. Matter of philosophy, I don't subscribe at all to originalist approaches to interpreting the Constitution and its amendments but we can set that aside for now. I would just say that there are at least two other amendments that under your argument would also seem superfluous: the 19th Amendment granting women the right to vote and the 24th Amendment prohibition against a poll tax (full disclosure, I had to look up which number this was). I have no doubt that at the time the 14th Amendment was passed, there was hardly any thought given as to whether women should be allowed to vote. But if the spirit of the 14th Amendment - presumably that all people should be equally protected under federal and state laws - is to be abided, then I think it's very difficult to argue that women should not already be inherently covered by the 14th, despite the presence of the 19th. Likewise, you would think that same spirit applies to economically disadvantaged people, despite the presence of the 24th. So I would personally dispute that the 14th Amendment does not have power in a constitutional argument over voting rights.

Also, just one note of interest from your subsequent post, you mention that the Supreme Court has cleared political gerrymandering as permissible. This is a bit semantic, but I believe technically, the Supreme Court simply said that it is not an issue for the courts to take up, presumably punting that issue to be legislated against. Setting aside the seemingly obvious fact that much political gerrymandering is really racial gerrymandering without being explicit, I find this to be one more example of how the current Supreme Court has been completely disingenuous on any issue relating to voting rights. And to link that back to the Court's Shelby argument that the data was outdated, even if it had chosen to adjudicate gerrymandering on a substantive level, I don't have any faith that this current Court would intelligently look at the data anyway. So just an overall s***show at the moment.
On the argument you are making based on the 14th amendment, wouldn't it better made under Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act? I am not an expert here but I thought Congress clarified that, unlike Section 1 of the 15th Amendment, no intent was required to be proven but only the disparate impact to allege violation of Section 2 of the VRA. Since Section 2 has already passed the judicial review by the SC, why not use that as the basis?

But here is my take on all this. Section 5 of the VRA was the most impactful provision since it stops the dilution of voting rights before it begins. Lawsuits take a long time, and it may impact the next election before it is fully adjudicated. Why not update the VRA, revive Section 4 based on updated data?


On your assumption that I am making an originalist argument, I don't think that is right. When the women allies worked on the 14th amendment, and they saw the final voting rights portion (Section 2 and not Section 1), they expressed their public dismay that they were left behind. Why? Section 1, if it were intended to cover voting rights, would have covered women too. And it would have covered felons and minors. However, the reason they felt left behind was that Section 2 of the 14th Amendment only addressed men. So, clearly, it was understood that Section 1 does not cover voting rights. Otherwise, looking at Section 1, women's suffrage group would have been overjoyed. In fact, few years after the passing of the 14th amendment and the realization that voting rights was also an important aspect needed to integrate the former slaves, they passed the 15th amendment. If Section 1 of 14th amendment was intended to cover voting rights, there was no need to adopt the 15th amendment but instead just enforce the 14th amendment. Same with the 19th amendment. It would not have been necessary if it was understood that the 14th amendment covered voting rights since Section 1 of the 14th amendment does not discriminate based on color or gender. It is not an originalist argument. It is based on case law history that did not find voting laws unconstitutional for violating Section 1 of the 14th amendment. Maybe you can cite a case law where you think, beyond the plain reading, precedent establishes equal protection clause of the 14th amendment extending to voting rights.

On political gerrymandering, I am not sure what you mean here. We agree that the court held that political gerrymandering is a political issue not subject to review by the judiciary branch. How is a political issue resolved by the only body discharged with resolving (legislative) anything but permissible? Whatever is left solely to one body of the government is legal once resolved by the only authority with the delegation. So, what would be the justification by Congress to takeover portions of redistricting otherwise left to the states? Not sure we are saying anything different, but maybe I am missing a nuance there. It is kind of like impeachment. The courts held that is a political matter that is resolved by the political body delegated and not subject to judicial review. So, the recent impeachment was permissible because the only body authorized (House) impeached the former president. End of story.

I agree that it was a bit weak of the SC to hold that Section 4 of the VRA was unconstitutional. Just like you, I don't know if I follow their reasoning that, since only the outdated data was used, there was no demonstration of a state interest necessary to justify federal reach into what has historically been a state matter. I think the fact that there was so much progress shows that it is effective and that it works, and it is exactly within the authority granted to Congress under Section 2 of the 15th amendment. Hated the Shelby ruling but also shows what we can expect from this court on federalism and voting rights.


That said, I don't have a particularly pointed argument for you on the legislative history or case law behind application of Section 1 of the 14th. I mean, I guess I could attempt to search some case law but I get enough of LexisNexis in my day job. My advocacy for using Section of the 14th really comes down to what you could call a textualist reading of it, because on its face, I simply don't see or agree with any interpretation that would suppose that "equal protection" does not extend to protection against voter disenfranchisement. And given the state of modern-day voter suppression, I think the time is ripe to raise that particular argument again, perhaps with nuanced differences that might sufficiently distinguish a new challenge from previous case law.


I stand corrected. The Supreme Court has applied the equal protection clause on voting right matters, including Harper v. Virginia and Crawford vs. Marion (which ruled that Voter ID laws did not violate the 14th amendment - with Scalia in concurring opinion arguing the 14th amendment should not apply when there is no evidence of discriminatory intent).
Just putting in some quick thoughts on these two cases you pulled up:
Harper v. Virginia: The first thing I noticed about this case when I looked it up was that the issue in question was that of a poll tax. The second thing I noticed was that the decision was rendered two years after the 24th Amendment was passed. To me, this immediately indicates that there is at least precedent for using the 14th Amendment as a basis for striking down a voting rights law even though a later amendment addressing the very issue in question already exists.

Crawford v Marion: A little surprised to see that Stevens joined the conservative majority in ruling that Indiana's voter ID law was constitutional, though I guess Stevens did originally come from a more conservative approach to jurisprudence in his earlier years. I'll admit I'm too lazy to look it up myself, but I'd be curious to see the data that he and the majority relied upon to determine that the number of people who would be burdened by the voter ID law is exceeded by the number of potential voter fraud cases that the law would prevent. This case seems pretty analogous to certain elements of the Big Lie over the past few months.
That is a good point on the timing of Harper.

On Crawford, I don't think they applied the formula or quantification you indicate or even needed to do so. What they did was assess whether the state had a legitimate interest in requiring voter ID. They acknowledged that there was very little or any evidence of contemporary instances of fraud. What they did acknowledge was that (i) there was extreme overinflation of voter rolls (which I think both sides acknowledged, sometimes approaching 100% inflation), (ii) there were instances of fraud in limited districts or in mayoral races, and (iii) even without evidence of fraud, there is legitimate interest in providing confidence to the public of security against voter fraud. Based on those they viewed the state interest as legitimate interest.

Since they were applying the rational basis test, they just wanted to see if there was rational connection between the legitimate interest and the rule. What they seemed to have concluded (unavoidably subjective) was that, even for those who are more impacted than others (seniors who were born out of state and have never had a drivers' license - a small universe but probably more minorities than white), the burden on obtaining a birth certificate and driving to a local DMV was not an unreasonable burden. Even for those who were not able, they could vote provisionally and then certify at a court within 10 days.

Not sure I agree with you that it is analogous to the Big Lie since everyone admits there was no evidence of fraud.

I will say this, though. Considering how critical having a valid ID is to maintaining any semblance of participation in the economy (i.e., opening up a bank account instead of paying predatory rates to cash a check, have a debit card to be able to participate in most commerce), maybe the better thing (assuming this is about making lives better and not just about winning elections to stay in power) would be help these people get valid ID (I am saying that to both parties - instead of complaining about potential voter fraud, help people get IDs).
You're right that SCOTUS used the rational basis test in Crawford; I'll admit I subconsciously imputed strict scrutiny because the ability to vote would seem to me to rise to the level of a fundamental right demanding that standard of adjudication. So a better way to say what I meant is that SCOTUS should have been using strict scrutiny, and I would be curious to know that data that Stevens (and the rest of the Court) was referring to when he mentioned that the burden to voters was outweighed by the state's interest in protecting against voter fraud. My assumption is that whatever data was referenced, it would not have come anywhere close to passing a strict scrutiny test, hence the analogy to the Big Lie.

I pretty much agree with you that the ideal would be for everyone to have a standardized ID that can be used for voter identification, but only if the government correspondingly makes it as painless as possible to obtain one. If government were to do so, then I posit that most voter ID laws would pass even the strict scrutiny standard. As I'm sure you're aware though, that is the exact opposite of what Republican state governments have been doing.
dimitrig
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sycasey said:

Republicans have a brand new priority. It's . . . cutting taxes for rich people.



Okay, maybe it's not that new.

This is very important legislation!

It impacts 2 out of every 1000 estates!

At least 80 small businesses and farms are impacted EACH YEAR!


sycasey
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Joe Manchin also said he'd be open to this.
calbear93
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sycasey said:



Joe Manchin also said he'd be open to this.
This seems sensible, and seems consistent with the original intent that filibuster was intended to continue debate (which would require talking) and force into the open who is holding up the measure. No more hiding. Once talking stops, cloture vote should pass by a simple majority.
 
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