Vandalus said:
BearGoggles said:
Vandalus said:
I'm willing to bet each and every family of the capitol police officers who died due to suicide closely following the events have or will be filing federal workers' compensation benefits claims, and in each on of them, the trier of fact will determine (if not already admitted) that those deaths medically arose out of and were sustained in the course of their employment on 1/6/2021.
To assert otherwise, and in the context of trying to bolster the arguing that the committee "is lying," is frankly abhorrent.
Of course they're making the filing to increase their survivor benefits. I don't blame them, but this is not the standard for saying a suicide "results" from a prior event. If it were, we'd have a lot of interesting numbers related to the 2020 BLM violence after which no doubt at least some police officers committed suicide. Not to mention the many policemen killed and injured during the actual 2020 riots.
Suicides among law enforcement are high, relatively speaking. Even the national police association has decried the dems politicizing of this issue.
https://nypost.com/2021/08/06/national-police-association-rep-slams-left-for-politicizing-cop-suicides-after-jan-6/
I bolded the only relevant part of your comment. Legally, I beg to differ. The determination is made by a judge, following the submission of evidence (much of it medical/legal opinion), and legal arguments from competent counsel to make a determination as to whether or not the applicant (family) has met their burden of proof, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the suicide was caused by the events of employment on that day.
By what standard are you ascribing to when answering the question as to whether the suicide was caused by the events of 1/6/2021? Your own lay opinion?
There are legal standards and then there are standards of how we typically discuss suicides (and ascribe moral blame for them).
Legally, it is misleading/false to say the riots "caused" the death of a guy (Sicknick) who died from a stroke, particularly when the medical examiner made no such finding. And remember that the dems spread false claims he'd been attacked with a fire extinguisher and died as a result, then DC delayed releasing the coroners report until many months later. The report revealed the dem's knowing lie.
In the case of Sicknick, the line of duty determination was made based on the false information promulgated by the dems - before the medical examiner's findings were released (
https://rollcall.com/2021/04/19/capitol-police-officers-natural-death-to-remain-classified-as-in-the-line-of-duty/)For the record, here the legal standard for benefits was SUPPOSED to be that the death was the "
sole and direct" result of an injury on duty and the police officer
did not cause his own death.
https://code.dccouncil.us/us/dc/council/code/sections/5-716.htmlIn the Jeffrey Smith case, initially benefits were denied by a board (not a judge as you claimed) because he caused his own death. Then after political pressure was brought to bear (including by members of congress), the case was reversed (as well as some of the other cases I believe). In simple terms, after intense political pressure, the board did not follow the law (imagine that). And for the record, I believe that law is pretty much the standard throughout the country.
https://nypost.com/2022/03/09/dc-police-officer-jeffrey-smith-suicide-after-jan-6-riot-ruled-line-of-duty-death/And this was the first time there had ever been a ruling like that, according to the widow's attorney. So this is far from the norm - presumably because the law cited above is directly contrary to the result. Lawyer quoted in this article:
https://www.nbcnews.com/politics/politics-news/dc-police-officer-died-suicide-jan-6-riot-declared-line-duty-death-rcna19433Bottom line - the board's legal ruling is a joke. By definition, a workplace injury is not the
sole and direct cause of a suicide - the person literally dies by their own hand which is (at a minimum) a contributing cause.
But beyond that, as a moral matter, we typically don't attribute a person's suicide to antecedent or surrounding events. When a man in an unhappy marriage kills himself, do we blame the spouse? Do we say his family killed him? Or do we give the dead person agency, recognizing that suicide is a pretty complicated thing, often involving mental health issues, etc. It is very rare that there is a single cause of suicide or even a direct cause (other than the means of death).
When a person commits suicide due to financial pressures, do we blame the bank? His or her investment advisor?
Are the Clintons responsible for killing Vince Foster? I'm not referring to the BS conspiracy theories. I'm referring to the fact that he killed himself because he was overworked, stressed out defending the Clinton scandals, etc. He wouldn't have killed himself had the Clinton's not put him in that situation. By your logic, Vince Foster died "as the result of" the Clinton's actions.
Did Stanford kill Katie Meyer? Or maybe her parents? Why hasn't it been reported that way?
While you're at it, please let me know who is morally responsible for Kurt Cobain's death - maybe the music industry? Or Courtney Love?
Many police have committed suicide or gone on disability since the dems enacted defund police policies at the local level. BLM and many dems disparage demonize the police. In late 2021, the WAPO described an epidemic of police suicide
https://www.washingtonpost.com/local/death-by-suicide-among-police-is-a-quiet-epidemic-it-needs-to-be-acknowledged/2021/08/09/c7dc2036-f941-11eb-9c0e-97e29906a970_story.html There seems to be a strong connection between workplace stress and these suicides and disability (according to the WAPO and other sources). Do we blame the dems and BLM for these?
